NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 21-30)

Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking V (21-30) -->

21) A
- magnesium-rich foods are as follows: green leafy vegetables, avocado, tuna fish, yogurt, cooked rolled oats, milk, peas, potatoes, pork, beef, chicken, raisins, peanut butter, cauliflower. Meat is the richest source of magnesium.

22) A

- the post-thyroidectomy client is experiencing hypocalcemia which may lead to seizures. The nurse should give priority to this client.

23) B
- Schilling's test involves administration of oral radioactive vitamin B12, followed by IM nonradioactive vitamin B12. Then, 24 hour urine collection is done. This is done to diagnose pernicious anemia.

24) B
- in multiple myeloma, bone destruction occurs; calcium is lost from the bones. This causes the bones to become weak and brittle. The client is prone to fracture. Factors that promote safety prevent fracture like removing all loose rugs on the floor, should be implemented.

25) C
- glaucoma causes loss of vision, especially peripheral vision, initially. Therefore, the client is at highest risk for fall among the clients mentioned.

26) C
- blood should be transfused within 30 minutes from the time it was taken out from the blood bank. This is to prevent hemolysis. The nurse should attend to this client first.

27) B, C, D, E, F
- elevated WBC level indicates infection. Therefore, measures to prevent further infection should be implemented. Raw fruits and vegetables should be avoided. They may be sources of bacteria

28) C
- MRSA requires contact precaution. Gown and gloves should be worne when caring for the client.

29) D
- an expert nursing assistant should be assigned to the client who requires assistance in bathing

30) A
- low platelet count increases risk for bleeding. The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000/ cu mm


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Test Prep for Nursing Exam about Pediatric Nursing (26-30)





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26. Which of the following situations is most dangerous among children?

a) medications are placed in the cupboard
b) gun is found inside the locker but the child doesn't know where the keys are
c) an 11-year old boy is skating along highway, going the same direction with the cars
d) a 4-year old playing tricycle with pedal in the backyard wearing helmet, elbow pads and knee pads

27. Which of the following toys is appropriate for a 10-month old infant?

a) brightly colored mobiles with sounds
b) large interlocking blocks
c) push-and-pull toys
d) cups of different sizes that fit inside each other

28. A child is 2-year old. Which of the following is expected in the child?

a) runs well
b) walks with support
c) hops on one foot
d) walks up stairs without grasping the handrails

29) The 15-month old child can do which of the following?

a) sits without support
b) drinks from a cup
c) creeps
d) throws ball on the floor

30. The newborn was delivered 6 hours ago. During assessment of the client, which of the following findings need to be reported to the physician?

a) nystagmus
b) posterior fontanel is closed
c) arms actively flexed upon stimulation
d) respiration are irregular



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

26) B
- presence of gun inside the home is very dangerous for children. There is a possibility that they may find the keys.

27) B
- large interlocking blocks are most appropriate for a 10-month old infant. Mobiles are appropriate for 0 to 6 months old infant. Push and pull toys and toys that fit inside each other are for toddlers.

28) A
- a 2-year old child is able to run well.
Choice B - is for a 10 - 12 month old who is able to walk with support
Choice C - for a 4-year old who is able to hop on one foot
Choice D - for a 5-year old who is able to walk upstairs without grasping the handrails.

29) D
- a 15-month old child can throw a ball on he floor, can drop a pellet into a narrow-necked bottle. Casting or throwing objects and retrieving them become almost obsessive activities at about 15 months.

30) B
- posterior fontanel normally closes at age 2-3 months. Premature closure of posterior fontanel is called craniosynostosis. Choices A, C, and D are normal findings.

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NCLEX Review about Cardiac Nursing (26-30)

NCLEX Review about Cardiac Nursing

26. The client has coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements when made by the client indicates that he understands the health instructions?

a) I need to avoid carbohydrates
b) I need to avoid working in cold weather
c) I need to avoid exercise
d) I need to avoid fruits

27. A client had a second myocardial infarction episode. The nurse determines the precipitating factor when the client says

a) I use my nicoderm patch, so I can quit smoking
b) I go for a walk in the park, each morning during summer
c) I get tired when I climb a flight of stairs
d) I include fruits and vegetables in my diet

28. The client has been diagnosed to have chronic congestive heart failure (CHF). What is the earliest sign that indicates recurrence of CHF?

a) dyspnea
b) syncopal episode
c) tachycardia
d) elevated blood pressure

29. Which of the following is a prominent signs and symptoms in a client with COA (coarctation of aorta)?

a) elevated BP in both lower extremities
b) diminished femoral pulse
c) cyanosis
d) machinery murmurs

30. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate pacemaker failure?

a) increased pulse rate
b) decreased pulse rate of 60 beats per minute
c) flushing of the skin
d) elevated body temperature




NCLEX Review about Cardiac Nursing:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

26. B
- working in cold weather precipitates coronary artery spasm. This reduces myocardial tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Therefore the client with CAD should avoid working in cold weather.

27) A
- nicotine causes vasoconstriction. Nicoderm patch is contraindicated for clients with history of M.I.

28) A
- dyspnea is the earliest sign that indicates recurrence of CHF

29) B
- coarctation of aorta is characterized by the following signs and symptoms:
  • hypertension in the higher extremities
  • hypotension in the lower extremities
  • diminished pulse in the lower extremities
30) B
- bradycardia is a sign of pacemaker failure. Other signs and symptoms of pacemaker failure are as follows: dizziness, faintness, shortness of breath, prolonged hiccups.





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NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Questions 21-30)

Here are the Answers to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking V (21-30) -->

21. The patient is suffering from hypomagnesemia. Which of the following foods is appropriate for this client?

a) chicken
b) egg
c) nuts
d) green beans

22. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

a) a post-thyroidectomy client with tremors in the fingers
b) a diabetic client with blood glucose of 204 mg/dl
c) a postoperative client complaining of pain on incision site
d) an elderly client with urinary incontinence

23. The client will undergo Schilling's test. Which of the following statements when made by the client indicates an understanding of the procedure?

a) blood will be drawn from me in the morning
b) I will be given vitamin B12 preparation
c) A medication will be instilled into my eyes
d) I will not eat anything for 8 hours before the test

24. A client has been diagnosed to have multiple myeloma. Which of the following should be included in the nursing care of the client?

a) give ASA for pain
b) remove all loose rugs on the floor
c) increase milk intake of the client
d) encourage walking a mile each morning

25. Which of these clients is highest risk for falls?

a) a 65-year old client who walks with a three-pointed cane
b) a 60-year old client who asks for sedative-hypnotic at bedtime
c) a 71-year old client who has glaucoma and is receiving a miotic
d) a 68-year old client using walker

26. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

a) a client with hyperthyroidism whose temperature is 39.4C
b) a diabetic client with blood glucose of 365 mg/dl
c) a client who is waiting for blood transfusion in which the blood arrived the unit 10 minutes ago
d) a client with myocardial infarction who experiences 2 to 4 premature ventricular contractions per minute

27. The client has a WBC level of 13,000/cumm. Which of the following would the nurse give as health teachings? Select all that apply

a) eat raw fruits and vegetables
b) practice hand washing before and after using the bathroom
c) avoid crowded places like shopping malls
d) eat in a disposable plate and throw them after use
e) avoid people with cough and colds
f) avoid exposure to cold and dampness

28. Which of the following precautions should the nurse observe when caring for a client with MRSA?

a) putting mask on the client when he is transported to another department
b) keeping the client's room closed at all times
c) wearing gloves when caring for the client
d) wearing mask and gloves when performing procedures to the client

29. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an expert nursing assistant?

a) a client who needs enema
b) a client who needs enteral feeding
c) a client who needs dressing changes every 4 hours
d) a client who needs assistance in bathing and complained of an incompetent nursing assistant the previous shift

30. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention in a client with platelet count of 90,000/cumm?

a) bleeding precaution
b) isolation precaution
c) reverse isolation
d) strict isolation


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NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 11-20)

Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking V (11-20) -->

11) A
- cheese and milk are rich in sodium.

12) B
- the client with burns in the face experiences airway obstruction; he may also experience suffocation due to inhalation of smoke and therefore should be given highest priority.

13) A

- thickened liquid diet is easier to swallow and is appropriate in a client experiencing dysphagia. Broth, sliced fruits and spaghetti can easily be aspirated.

14) C
- exposure to sunlight causes exacerbation of manifestations of SLE. Therefore, this should be avoided.

15) C
- decreased secretion of adrenal cortex hormones results to hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia and hyperkalemia. (In addison's crisis: everything is low and slow, except potassium).

16) A
- the expected therapeutic effect of heparin is: Control (normal value) of PTT/APTT X 2 to 2.5

17) A, B, E, F
- dumping syndrome, a complication of gastric surgery is due to rapid gastric emptying into the jejunum causing fluid shift: IVC (intravascular compartment) to ISC (interstitial compartment) producing shock-like manifestations. Hypotension and cold, clammy skin also characterizes shock.

18) A
- decreased secretion of aldosterone leads to loss of sodium ion and water causing decreased in BP.

19) A
- mode of transmission of MRSA is direct contact with skin secretions. The stethoscope should be left in the client's room.

20) B
- this is the only correct nursing action among the choices. Restraints should be secured on the bedframe not on the siderails. Chemical restraints like giving valium, should be used with great precaution. PRN order for restraints is legally unacceptable.


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NCLEX Review about Gastrointestinal Disorders 21-25

NCLEX Review about Gastrointestinal Disorders

21. Which of the following findings indicates effectiveness of Viokase?

a) abdominal pain relieved
b) steatorrhea has decreased
c) vomiting has stopped
d) jaundice has diminished

22. The client had undergone ileostomy. He has nasogastric tube connected to intermittent suction, with IV fluid and foley catheter. Which of the following physician's instructions requires intervention by thew nurse?

a) remove the NGT on the third day postop
b) remove foley catheter after 24 hours
c) irrigate ileostomy at bed time
d) clear liquid diet once peristalsis returns

23. Which of the following manifestations characterize pancreatitis?

a) right upper quadrant pain
b) bile-stained vomitus
c) epigastric pain that is not relieved by vomiting
d) elevated serum calcium

24. The client is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following signs and symptoms will the client manifest?

a) right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain
b) bluish discoloration at the periumbilical area
c) left lower quadrant (LLQ) pain
d) pain at the epigastric region

25. The client is diagnosed to have acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory findings signify the diagnosis?

a) elevated SGOT, SGPT
b) elevated BUN, serum creatinine
c) elevated FBS, ESR
d) elevated serum amylase, lipase




NCLEX REVIEW ABOUT GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

21) B
- viokase is a digestive enzyme. If fats are adequately digested. There will be decreased steatorrhea.

22) C
- ileostomy does not require irrigation because it continuously drains watery fecal drainage.

23) B
- pancreatitis is characterized by bile-stained vomitus, LLQ pain, epigastric pain relieved by vomiting, and hypocalcemia.

24) B
- bluish discoloration at the periumbilical region (Cullen's sign) indicates post-hemorrhagic necrosis in acute pancreatitis.

25) D
- elevated serum amylase and lipase signify pancreatitis.




Go to the next page ---> NCLEX Review about Gastrointestinal Disorders 26-30  

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Test Prep for Nursing Exam about Obstetric Nursing (26-30)





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26. A baby has been delivered 2 hours ago by a diabetic mother. The baby manifests high-pitched cry. The nurse should assess for which of the following conditions?

a) fetal alcohol syndrome
b) increased intracranial pressure
c) prematurity
d) hypoglycemia

27. Which of the following situations in a newborn necessitates urgent attention by the nurse?

a) irregular respiratory patterns
b) body temperature of 36.5 degree centigrade
c) blood pressure of 65/41 mmHg
d) meconium staining on the infant's body

28. A pregnant woman on 36 weeks gestation experiences sudden gush of fluids from the vagina. Which of the following should be the initial action by the nurse?

a) notify the physician
b) check the fluid pH
c) prepare the client for delivery
d) place the client in knee-to-chest position

29. The client with endometriosis is taking Danazol. Which of the following is the expected effect of the medication?

a) it inhibits ovulation
b) it relieves uterine spasm
c) it reduces menstrual bleeding
d) it prevents pregnancy

30. The nurse is giving health teachings to several pregnant clients. Which of the following statements of the clients should be given highest priority by the nurse?

a) I enjoy working in the garden and keeping my hands dirty. It relaxes me
b) I walk a mile every morning and 3 miles on weekends
c) I watch the recipes on TV shows and cook them
d) I drive myself to work



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

26) D
- hypoglycemia is common among newborn of diabetic mothers. This is because the fetal pancreas increases insulin secretion in response to high glucose levels passed on by the mother to the fetus. The fetal pancreas hypertrophies. After birth, the glucose from the mother is no longer available, and yet the fetal pancreas continues to secrete high levels of insulin.

27) D
- meconium staining on the infant's body indicates fetal distress. Meconium aspiration may also had occurred. Therefore, this situation necessitates urgent attention by the nurse.

28) B
- check the fluid for pH to ascertain if it is amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid is alkaline. Yellow Nitrazine turns to blue, if it is amniotic fluid.

29) B
- danazol relieves uterine spasm

30) A
- infection may occur from keeping hands dirty. Cat/dog litters and bird droppings may be found in the soil. Infections like toxoplasmosis, histoplasmosis, etc. are associated with these factors.



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NCLEX Secrets - Neurology Board Review (36-40)

NCLEX Secrets - Neurology Board Review

36. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should be given highest priority by the nurse in a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)?

a) activity intolerance related to muscle weakness
b) ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness
c) ineffective sexuality pattern related to paralysis
d) ineffective coping related to body changes

37. A client has been diagnosed to have Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following is most appropriate nursing action to prevent sundowning syndrome?

a) make the client stay in his room before dark
b) turn lights on before dark
c) feed the client before dark
d) administer the client's medication before dark

38. Which of the following manifestations is most likely observed in a child with hydrocephalus?

a) depressed anterior fontanel
b) sunsetting eyes
c) loud, vigorous cry
d) short and thick neck

39. The client has been diagnosed to have ALS (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis). Which of the following manifestations characterize the disease? Select all that apply

a) muscle weakness
b) intention tremors
c) muscle atrophy
d) fatigue
e) shuffling gait
f) respiratory difficulty

40. The client had undergone cerebral angiography. Which of the following potential complications should the nurse be most alert for?

a) nausea and vomiting
b) skin rashes
c) hypertension
d) hypotension





NCLEX Secrets - Neurology Board Review:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

36) B
- in GBS, respiratory muscle weakness and paralysis occur.

37) B
- turning lights on before dark prevents sundowning syndrome.

38) B
- sunsetting eyes characterize hydrocephalus. Other signs and symptoms include: sudden enlargement of head, bulging fontanels, dilated scalp veins, separated sutures, Macewen sign, frontal enlargement/bossing, and thinning of skull bones.

39) A, C, D, F
- amyotrophic lateral scerosis (ALS) is a motor neuron disorder. It is characterized by fatigue, awkwardness of fine finger movement, muscle wasting, dysphagia, muscle weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, dysarthria, jaw clonus, respiratory difficulty, spasticity of flexor muscles. This disease is also known as "Lou Gehrig's disease."

40) D
- the contrast medium used in cerebral angiography has profound diuretic effect. Therefore, it may cause hypotension.


Go to the next page ---> NCLEX Secrets - Neurology Board Review (41-45)  

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Online Nursing Practice Test about Respiratory Diseases (36-40)









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36. Which of the following findings should be reported to the physician?

a) vesicular breath sounds at the peripheral areas of the lungs
b) bronchovesicular breath sounds heard over the mainstem bronchi
c) bronchial breath sounds heard over the trachea
d) adventitious breath sounds heard all over the lungs

37. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving Aminophylline. Which of the following manifestations indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the drug?

a) elevated temperature
b) bradycardia
c) restlessness
d) tachycardia

38. The client has closed chest drainage. Which of the following observations need prompt reporting to the physician?

a) the water in the water-seal drainage is constantly bubbling
b) there is continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
c) fluctuation of fluids is noted in the water seal chamber if suction is not applied
d) the suction control chamber is filled with 20 cm of sterile NSS

39. The client is diagnosed to have COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease). Which of the following signs and symptoms needs priority intervention by the nurse?

a) temperature of 37.5 C
b) tachycardia
c) cough
d) 91% oxygen saturation

40. A client who had vehicular accident was admitted to the emergency department. His trachea is deviated to the left. What does the nurse anticipate to be done to the client?

a) the client will have endotracheal intubation
b) the client will have emergency tracheotomy
c) the client will have oxygen by mask
d) the client will have thoracentesis



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

36) D
- adventitious breath sounds are abnormal breath sounds and should be reported to the physician. Vesicular, bronchovesicular, and bronchial breath sounds are normal breath sounds.

37) D
- aminophylline causes tachycardia, restlessness, insomnia, diuresis, hypotension, and diarrhea. Tachycardia is the most common adverse effect of bronchodilators.

38) A
constant bubbling in the water-seal drainage indicates air leak. This should be reported to the physician. All the other findings are normal.

39) C
- cough in COPD is caused by copious, tenacious mucous secretions. Problems with airway should be given highest priority. In COPD, 91% oxygen saturation is considered normal, because the client is breathing due to low oxygen levels in the blood.

40) D
- this situation indicates pneumothorax. Therefore, there is a need to aspirate the air from he pleural space to prevent lung collapse.


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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Questions 11-20)

Here are the Answers to NCLEX Critical Thinking V (11-20) -->

11. Which of the following foods are rich in sodium?

a) salad and cheese
b) baked potato
c) orange slices
d) turnips

12. Which of the following clients should be given highest priority by the Emergency Department nurse?

a) the client with diffuse abdominal pain
b) the client with burns in the face
c) the client with severe diarrhea
d) the client with fracture of the arm

13. The client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing dysphagia. Which of the following foods is most important for the client?

a) vanilla pudding
b) broth
c) sliced fruits
d) spaghetti

14. client is diagnosed to have Addison's crisis. Which of the following assessment findings characterize the condition?

a) hyponatremia, hypotension, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia
b) hyponatremia, hypotension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia
c) hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia
d) hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

15. Which of the following statements when made by the client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates the need for further teaching?

a) I will wear long-sleeved clothings when I go walking in the morning
b) I will walk in shaded areas only
c) I will go sunbathing in summer
d) I will wear wide-breamed hat when I go to the beach

16. The client is on heparin therapy. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 2 times the baseline. What is the appropriate nursing action?

a) continue heparin at the same dose
b) notify the physician
c) discontinue heparin
d) reduce the dose of heparin

17. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome? Select all that apply

a) explosive diarrhea
b) tachycardia
c) hypertension
d) warm, flushed, dry skin
e) dizziness
f) diaphoresis

18. Which of the following is a manifestation of Addison's disease?

a) blood pressure drops upon awakening in the morning
b) arterial blood gas results reveal respiratory alkalosis
c) weight gain of 4 lbs in 2 weeks
d) blood glucose is constantly elevated

19. The nurse takes care of a client with MRSA. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse to prevent contamination?

a) leave the stethoscope in the client's room
b) keep the client's room closed
c) wear mask when entering the client's room
d) require the client to wear when transporting him to another department

20. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action when promoting effective management on safety of clients?

a) the nurse secures the restraints to the siderails in square knot
b) the nurse puts up both siderails on a patient who is disoriented to time and place
c) the nurse gives prescribed valium PRN to a patient who climbs out of bed
d) the nurse applies restraints to the restless client PRN as ordered by the physician


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NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 1-10)

Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking V (1-10) -->

1) B
- a client who had undergone vasectomy is considered sterile and may have unprotected sex after 3 negative semen analysis.

2) D
- septic shock is caused by severe infection. Toxins cause massive vasodilation causing decreased tissue perfusion and decreased tissue oxygenation.

3) A
- after verbal stimulation, tactile stimulation should be done, e.g. painful stimulation.

4) C
- anasarca is generalized edema. Decrease in edema indicates improvement.

5) B
- the hand should be in neutral position to prevent further nerve injury.

6) D
- serum sodium level of 165 mEq/L is elevated. Therefore this needs to be reported. Normal level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges.

7) A
- pericardial friction rub indicates pericarditis, a serious complication of SLE.

8) B
- sickle cell anemia is inherited from both parents. Sons and daughters may be affected by sickle cell anemia.

9) B
- release of information without patient's consent is a breach to right to privacy.

10) A
- decreased blood pH, decreased HCO3 lead to metabolic acidosis.


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NCLEX Review Questions on Cancer (21-25)

NCLEX Review Questions on Cancer

21. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate when caring for a client with radium implant?

a) wear gloves when entering the client's room
b) wear masks and gloves when performing procedures to the client
c) avoid staying with the client for more than 30 minutes in a shift
d) place client's soiled gowns and linens in a plastic bag

22. A woman had been diagnosed to have breast cancer. Which of the following factors is most significant to her prognosis?

a) she had her menarche at age 12 years
b) her sister died of breast cancer 5 years ago
c) she delivered her first born at age 25 years
d) she had her menopause at age 50 years

23. Which of the following are characteristics of a client most susceptible to develop malignant melanoma?

a) dark skin, black hair
b) coarse skin, black hair
c) fair skin, blond hair
d) oily skin, brown hair

24. Which of the following statements when made by the client with implant radiation therapy needs intervention by the nurse?

a) I will have to go to the toilet to void
b) my visitors are allowed to visit me for 30 minutes only in a day
c) the nurse needs to wear a badge when caring for me
d) I need to remain in bed during the entire duration of the treatment

25. Which of the following statements when made by the client with leukemia indicates that the client understands the health teachings given by the nurse? Select all that apply

a) I am allowed to eat raw foods
b) I have to avoid raw fruits and vegetables
c) fresh flowers should not be allowed in my room
d) if I developed joint pains, I should apply cold compress to the area
e) if I developed high fever, I should take aspirin
f) I am allowed to watch baseball games
g) I should use soft-bristled toothbrush






NCLEX Review Questions on Cancer:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

21) C
- the nurse must limit her exposure to the client having internal radiation therapy to prevent contamination. The nurse must observe DTS (distance, time, and shielding). Time: 5 minutes/exposure; maximum of 30 minutes in an 8-hour shift.

22) B
- positive family history plays vital role in the predisposition to cancer.

23) C
- clients with fair skin, blond hair are prone to skin cancer. This is because they have lesser melanin in their skin, which serves as protection of the skin.

24) A
- the client receiving internal radiation therapy should be on complete bed rest to prevent dislodgement of the implant. The client has 2-way foley catheter during the treatment.
Choices B, C, and D indicate correct understanding of the patient on internal radiation therapy, and do not need intervention by the nurse.

25) B, C, D, G
- indicates that the client with leukemia understands health teachings. A client with leukemia has low resistance to infection and bleeding tendencies.


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      NCLEX Endocrine Questions (21-25)

      NCLEX Endocrine Questions

      21. A diabetic client asks a nurse if bacon is allowed in the diet. Which nursing response is most appropriate?

      a) bacon is much too high in fats
      b) bacon is not allowed
      c) one strip of bacon may be eaten if you eliminate 1 teaspoon of butter
      d) bacon may be eaten if you eliminate one meat from the diet

      22. The client with congestive heart disease is diagnosed to have diabetes mellitus (DM). Which of the following medications should not be administered by the nurse to this client?

      a) capoten (captopril)
      b) lanoxin (digoxin)
      c) inderal (propranolol)
      d) calan (verapamil)

      23. The client has been diagnosed to have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following are correct statements about type 2 DM. Select all that apply

      a) managed by diet and exercise
      b) prone ot diabetic ketoacidosis
      c) prone to HHNC (hyperglycemic hyperosmolar - nonketotic coma)
      d) managed by OHA (oral hypoglycemic agents)
      e) requires lifelong insulin therapy
      f) onset is before age 30 years
      g) with absolute deficiency of insulin

      24. The diabetic client is having ketoacidosis. Which of the following is the appropriate initial nursing action?

      a) start an intravenous glucose
      b) administer insulin per IV
      c) give a glass of orange juice
      d) give a cup of skim milk

      25. The client has been diagnosed to have NIDDM (non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus). Which of the following signs and symptoms characterize the disease? Select all that apply.

      a) occurs after 30 years of age
      b) obesity
      c) requires lifetime insulin injection
      d) can be controlled by diet, exercise, and drug
      e) prone to diabetic ketoacidosis
      f) experience weight loss
      g) may require insulin in case of stress, surgery, pregnancy




      NCLEX Endocrine Questions:
      ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

      21) C - bacon is fat and may be exchanged with fat component in the diet, e.g. butter. Exchange food within the same food group.

      22) C
      - inderal is a beta adrenergic blocker. It may cause hypoglycemia and is contraindicated in a client with DM.

      23) A, C, D
      - these are characteristics of type II DM. The other choices describe type I DM.

      24) B
      - ketoacidosis is characterized by severe hyperglycemia. The emergency management of ketoacidosis is regular insulin/IV.

      25) A, B, D, and G
      - all of these describes NIDDM.


      Go to the next page ---> NCLEX Endocrine Questions (26-30)  

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