NCLEX Medication Review 111-119

111. NCLEX Medication Review question about a client who has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess?

a) The injection site for itching and edema
b) The white blood cell counts and platelet counts
c) Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain
d) Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth, and a loss of appetite

112. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

a) Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day.
b) Take the medication on an empty stomach.
c) The effect of the medication will occur immediately.
d) Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

113. Colchicine (Colcrys) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client’s record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder?

a) Myxedema
b) Kidney disease
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Diabetes mellitus

114. Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

a) Take the medication at bedtime.
b) Take the medication in the morning with breakfast.
c) Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
d) Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

115. NCLEX Medication Review question about the nurse who is preparing discharge instructions for a client receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan?

a) Restrict fluid intake.
b) Avoid the use of alcohol.
c) Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs.
d) Notify the health care provider (HCP) if fatigue occurs.

116. NCLEX Medication Review question about the nurse who is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication?

a) Platelet count
b) Creatinine level
c) Liver function tests
d) Blood urea nitrogen level

117. Cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril) is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms and the nurse is reviewing the client’s record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the health care provider about the administration of this medication?

a) Glaucoma
b) Emphysema
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Diabetes mellitus

118. In monitoring a client’s response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply.

a) Symptom control during periods of emotional stress
b) Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts
c) Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration
d) An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy
e) Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given
f) A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

119. NCLEX Medication Review question about the nurse who is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol (Robaxin) to a client with multiple sclerosis. For which side/ adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

a) Tachycardia
b) Rapid pulse
c) Bradycardia
d) Hypertension





NCLEX Medication Review
Answers and Rationale

111) B
- Rationale: Infection and pancytopenia are side/ adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening
 infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of side/ adverse effects of this medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words most important. Option D can be eliminated, because this is not a common side/ adverse effect. In early treatment, residual fatigue and joint pain may still be apparent. For the remaining options, the correct option monitors for a hematological disorder, which could indicate a reason for discontinuing this medication and should be reported.

112) A
- NCLEX Medication Review Rationale: Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. A full therapeutic effect may take 1 week or longer. Allopurinol is to be given with, or immediately after, meals or milk. A client who develops a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth should contact the health care provider because this may indicate hypersensitivity.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions for allopurinol. Option D can be eliminated easily because it indicates hypersensitivity, which is not a normal expected response. From the remaining options, recalling that this medication is used to treat gout will direct you to the correct option.

113) B
- Rationale: Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease. The disorders in options A, C, and D are not concerns with administration of this medication.

- NCLEX Medication Review Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the cautions associated with colchicine. Note that options A, C, and D are comparable or alike and are endocrine-related disorders. The correct option is different from the others.

114) D
- Rationale: Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal side/ adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the administration of alendronate. Recalling that this medication can cause esophageal irritation will direct you to the correct option.

115) B
- Rationale: Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation rather than diarrhea is a side/ adverse effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the HCP about fatigue.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, teaching points for baclofen. Recalling that baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant will direct you easily to the correct option. If you were unsure of the correct option, use general principles related to medication administration. Alcohol should be avoided with the use of medications.

116) C
- Rationale: Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options B and D because these tests assess kidney function and are comparable or alike. From the remaining options, you must recall that this medication affects liver function.

117) A
- NCLEX Medication Review Rationale: Because cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) has anticholinergic effects, it should be used with caution in clients with a history of urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraocular pressure. Cyclobenzaprine should be used only for a short time (2 to 3 weeks). The conditions in options B, C, and D are not a concern with this medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, a contraindication to cyclobenzaprine. Recalling that this medication has anticholinergic effects will direct you to the correct option.

118) A, B, C, D
- Rationale: Because emotional stress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, acceptable responses to therapy. Recalling that signs of an infection can indicate an unexpected finding will assist in eliminating options E and F.

119) C
- Rationale: Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these side/ adverse effects. Options A, B, and D are not effects with administration of this medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options A and B first because they are comparable or alike. Knowledge about the specific side/ adverse effects related to the intravenous use of this medication will direct you to the correct option. Remember that hypotension and bradycardia can occur with intravenous administration of methocarbamol.



After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can also go back to the first page to start from the beginning:

NCLEX Medication Review 1-5


Or proceed to the next set of questions:

NCLEX Medication Review 119-125

Read More

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 106-110

Set your mind for another 5-item NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology! Let’s see how well you answer these questions!106. A client who has a cold is seen in the emergency department with an inability to void. Because the client has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, the nurse determines that the client should be questioned about the use of which medication?

a) Diuretics
b) Antibiotics
c) Antitussives
d) Decongestants

107. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. The client contacts the nurse and reports a cough, chills, fever, and difficulty breathing. The nurse should make which interpretation about the client’s complaints?

a) The client may have contracted the flu.
b) The client is experiencing anaphylaxis.
c) The client is experiencing expected effects of the medication.
d) The client is experiencing a pulmonary reaction requiring cessation of the medication.

108. NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology about the nurse who is providing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfamethoxazole. Which instruction should be included in the list?

a) Restrict fluid intake.
b) Maintain a high fluid intake.
c) If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately.
d) Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

109. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ; Bactrim) is prescribed for a client. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it develops during the course of this medication therapy?

a) Nausea
b) Diarrhea
c) Headache
d) Sore throat

110. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse should provide the client with which information regarding this medication?

a) Take the medication at bedtime.
b) Take the medication before meals.
c) Discontinue the medication if a headache occurs.
d) A reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur.





NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology
Answers and Rationale

106) D
- Rationale: In the client with benign prostatic hyperplasia, episodes of urinary retention can be triggered by certain medications, such as decongestants, anticholinergics, and antidepressants. The client should be questioned about the use of these medications if the client has urinary retention. Retention also can be precipitated by other factors, such as alcoholic beverages, infection, bed rest, and becoming chilled.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, medications that could exacerbate or contribute to urinary retention in the client with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Diuretics should help voiding; therefore, eliminate option A. Antibiotics should have no effect at all, and thus eliminate option B. From the remaining options, recalling that medications that contain anticholinergics may cause urinary retention will direct you to the correct option.

107) D
- Rationale: Nitrofurantoin can induce two kinds of pulmonary reactions: acute and subacute. Acute reactions, which are most common, manifest with dyspnea, chest pain, chills, fever, cough, and alveolar infiltrates. These symptoms resolve 2 to 4 days after discontinuing the medication. Acute pulmonary responses are thought to be hypersensitivity reactions. Subacute reactions are rare and occur during prolonged treatment. Symptoms (e.g., dyspnea, cough, malaise) usually regress over weeks to months following nitrofurantoin withdrawal. However, in some clients, permanent lung damage may occur. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

- NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, interpreting the client’s complaints. Note the relationship of the information in the question and the words pulmonary reaction in the correct option.

108) B
- Rationale: Each dose of sulfamethoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfamethoxazole cause urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the HCP.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, client instructions for sulfamethoxazole. Recalling that this medication is used to treat urinary tract infections will direct you to the correct option.

109) D
- Rationale: Clients taking trimethoprim (TMP)-sulfamethoxazole (SMZ) should be informed about early signs/ symptoms of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider (HCP) if these occur. The other options do not require HCP notification.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the symptoms to report. Knowledge that this medication can cause blood dyscrasias will direct you to the correct option.

110) D
- Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse also should instruct the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. The medication should be taken after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. A headache is an occasional side effect of the medication and does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options A and B first because they are comparable or alike in that they address time schedules for the administration of the medication. From the remaining options, eliminate option C because the nurse would not advise the client to discontinue this medication.


After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can also go back to the first page to start from the beginning:

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 1-5


Or proceed to the next set of questions:

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 111-119

Read More

Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale 1-9

Here is another 5-item Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale. These questions will challenge your knowledge about the concepts behind Tuberculosis, Pulmonary Sarcoidosis, COPD and many more.
 1. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)– positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Inconclusive
d) Need for repeat testing

2. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has histoplasmosis. The nurse should assess the client for which expected finding?

a) Dyspnea
b) Headache
c) Weight gain
d) Hypothermia

3. Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale about the nurse who is giving discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary sarcoidosis. The nurse concludes that the client understands the information if the client indicates to report which early sign of exacerbation?

a) Fever
b) Fatigue
c) Weight loss
d) Shortness of breath

4. The nurse is taking the history of a client with occupational lung disease (silicosis). The nurse should assess whether the client wears which item during periods of exposure to silica particles?

a) Mask
b) Gown
c) Gloves
d) Eye protection

5. An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which oxygen delivery system would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?

a) Face tent
b) Venturi mask
c) Aerosol mask
d) Tracheostomy collar

6. Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale about the nurse who is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position should the nurse instruct the client to assume?

a) Sitting up in bed
b) Side-lying in bed
c) Sitting in a recliner chair
d) Sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on an overbed table

7. The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the symptoms associated with tuberculosis. Which is one of the first manifestations associated with tuberculosis?

a) Dyspnea
b) Chest pain
c) A bloody, productive cough
d) A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

8. The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis?

a) Chest x-ray
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Sputum culture
d) Tuberculin skin test

9. The low-pressure alarm sounds on a ventilator. The nurse assesses the client and then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm. If unsuccessful in determining the cause of the alarm, the nurse should take what initial action?

a) Administer oxygen
b) Check the client’s vital signs
c) Ventilate the client manually
d) Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation




Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale

1) A
- Rationale: The client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is considered to have positive results on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm. The client without HIV is positive with an induration larger than 10 mm. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client. It is possible for the client infected with HIV to have false-negative readings because of the immunosuppression factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect interpretations.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options C and D first because they are comparable or alike. From the remaining options, recalling that the client with HIV is immunosuppressed will assist in determining the interpretation of the area of induration.

2) A
- Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale: Histoplasmosis is an opportunistic fungal infection that can occur in the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The infection begins as a respiratory infection and can progress to disseminated infection. Typical signs and symptoms include fever, dyspnea, cough, and weight loss. Enlargement of the client’s lymph nodes, liver, and spleen may occur as well.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, manifestations of histoplasmosis. Recalling that histoplasmosis is an infectious process will help you eliminate option 4. Because the client has AIDS and another infection, weight gain is an unlikely symptom and can be eliminated next. Knowing that histoplasmosis begins as a respiratory infection helps you choose dyspnea over headache as the correct option.

3) D
- Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale: Dry cough and dyspnea are typical early manifestations of pulmonary sarcoidosis. Later manifestations include night sweats, fever, weight loss, and skin nodules.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word early. Because sarcoidosis is a pulmonary problem, eliminate options A and C first. Select the correct option over option B because the shortness of breath (and impaired ventilation) appears first and would cause the fatigue as a secondary symptom.

4) A
- Rationale: Silicosis results from chronic, excessive inhalation of particles of free crystalline silica dust. The client should wear a mask to limit inhalation of this substance, which can cause restrictive lung disease after years of exposure. Options B, C, and D are not necessary.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, prevention of silicosis. Recalling that exposure to silica dust causes the illness and that the dust is inhaled into the respiratory tract will direct you to the correct option.

5) B
-Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers the most accurate oxygen concentration. It is the best oxygen delivery system for the client with chronic airflow limitation because it delivers a precise oxygen concentration. The face tent, aerosol mask, and tracheostomy collar are also high-flow oxygen delivery systems but most often are used to administer high humidity.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, delivery of a precise oxygen concentration. Eliminate options A, C, and D because they are comparable or alike in that they are used to provide high humidity.

6) D
- Rationale: Positions that will assist the client with emphysema with breathing include sitting up and leaning on an overbed table, sitting up and resting the elbows on the knees, and standing and leaning against the wall.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options A and C first because they are comparable or alike. Next, eliminate option B because this position will not enhance breathing.

7) D
- Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale: One of the first pulmonary manifestations of tuberculosis is a slight cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum. Options A, B, and C are late manifestations and signify cavitation and extensive lung involvement.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word first in the question. Next, focusing on the diagnosis should direct you to the correct option.

8) C
- Rationale: Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, confirming the diagnosis of tuberculosis. Confirmation is made by identifying M. tuberculosis.

9) C
- Rationale: If at any time an alarm is sounding and the nurse cannot quickly ascertain the problem, the client is disconnected from the ventilator and manual resuscitation is used to support respirations until the problem can be corrected. No reason is given to begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Checking vital signs is not the initial action. Although oxygen is helpful, it will not provide ventilation to the client.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word, initial, and note that the subject relates to adequate ventilation of the client. Also note that the nurse is unsuccessful in determining the cause of the alarm. This will direct you to the correct option.


Proceed to the next set of questions:

Respiratory NCLEX Questions with Rationale 10-15

Read More

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 101-105

Take our 5-item NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology to test how vast your knowledge about this topic..
21. The nurse is teaching a client how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

a) Withdraws the NPH insulin first
b) Withdraws the regular insulin first
c) Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
d) Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into each vial

22. The home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse should tell the client to take which action?

a) Freeze the insulin.
b) Refrigerate the insulin.
c) Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
d) Keep the insulin at room temperature.

23. NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology about Glimepiride (Amaryl) that is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. The nurse instructs the client to avoid consuming which food while taking this medication?

a) Alcohol
b) Organ meats
c) Whole-grain cereals
d) Carbonated beverages

24. Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. The nurse reviews the client’s medical record and should question the prescription if which data is noted in the client’s history?

a) Insomnia
b) Neuralgia
c) Use of nitroglycerin
d) Use of multivitamins

25. The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse should plan to take which most appropriate intervention?

a) Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client.
b) Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
c) Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administering the medication.
d) Withdraw the insulin from the prefilled pen into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.





NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology
Answers and Rationale

21) A
- Rationale: When preparing a mixture of short-acting insulin such as regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the short-acting short-acting insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of short-acting insulin with insulin of another type. Options B, C, and D identify correct actions for preparing NPH and short-acting insulin.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words need for further teaching. These words indicate a negative event query and ask you to select an option that is an incorrect action. Remember RN— draw up the Regular (short-acting) insulin before the NPH insulin.

22) B
- Rationale: Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.

- NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology Test-Taking Strategy: Note the subject, how to store unopened vials. Options C and D are comparable or alike and should be eliminated. Remembering that insulin should not be frozen will assist in eliminating option A.

23) A
- Rationale: When alcohol is combined with glimepiride (Amaryl), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication. The items in options B, C, and D do not need to be avoided.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Eliminate options B, C, and D because they are comparable or alike in that these food items are allowed in a diabetic diet. Remembering that alcohol can affect the action of many medications will assist in directing you to the correct option.

24) C
- Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is contraindicated with concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not contraindicated with the use of vitamins. Insomnia and neuralgia are side effects of the medication.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, the need to question the prescription. Recalling the action of the medication and that it enhances vasodilation will direct you to the correct option.

25) A
- Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should withhold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options B and C are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words most appropriate. Focus on the name of the medication, recalling that it is used for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Eliminate option D because the medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe. From the remaining options, focus on the data in the question. Although options B and C are appropriate when administering this medication, this client should not receive this medication.


After you reviewed your answers through its rationale, you can also go back to the first page to start from the beginning:

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 1-5


Or proceed to the next set of questions:

NCLEX Questions for Pharmacology 106-110

Read More

Oncology Practice Questions NCLEX 1-6

These NCLEX Oncology Practice Questions can help you review for your nursing boards. Good luck!

 1. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency?

a) Cyanosis
b) Arm edema
c) Periorbital edema
d) Mental status changes

2. Oncology Practice Questions about the nurse manager who is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign of this oncological emergency?

a) Headache
b) Dysphagia
c) Constipation
d) Electrocardiographic changes

3. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement?

a) “I should avoid blowing my nose.”
b) “I may need a platelet transfusion if my platelet count is too low.”
c) “I’m going to take aspirin for my headache as soon as I get home.”
d) “I will count the number of pads and tampons I use when menstruating.”

4. The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time?

a) At the onset of menstruation
b) Every month during ovulation
c) Weekly at the same time of day
d) 1 week after menstruation begins

5. A client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor. The nurse should monitor the client for which complications of this type of tumor? Select all that apply.

a) Flatulence
b) Peritonitis
c) Hemorrhage
d) Fistula formation
e) Bowel perforation 6. Lactose intolerance

6. The nurse is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which nursing intervention would assist in preventing lymphedema of the affected arm?

a) Placing cool compresses on the affected arm
b) Elevating the affected arm on a pillow above heart level
c) Avoiding arm exercises in the immediate postoperative period
d) Maintaining an intravenous site below the antecubital area on the affected side





Oncology Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

1) C
- Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth. Early signs and symptoms generally occur in the morning and include edema of the face, especially around the eyes, and client complaints of tightness of a shirt or blouse collar. As the compression worsens, the client experiences edema of the hands and arms. Cyanosis and mental status changes are late signs.

Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word early. Think about the pathophysiology associated with this disorder and focus on the strategic word to assist in eliminating options A, B, and D.

2) D
- Rationale: Hypercalcemia is a manifestation of bone metastasis in late-stage cancer. Headache and dysphagia are not associated with hypercalcemia. Constipation may occur early in the process. Electrocardiogram changes include shortened ST segment and a widened T wave.

- Oncology Practice Questions Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic word late. Focus on the name of the oncological emergency, hypercalcemia, to direct you to the correct option. Eliminate options A and B because they are not signs of hypercalcemia. Eliminate option C because it is an early sign of hypercalcemia.

3) C
- Rationale: During the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir), the platelet count may be low, less than 20,000 cells/ mm3. The correct option describes an incorrect statement by the client. Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and products that contain aspirin should be avoided because of their antiplatelet activity. Options A, B and D are correct statements by the client to prevent and monitor bleeding.

Test-Taking Strategy: Note the strategic words further teaching is needed. Recalling the effects of bone marrow suppression will direct you to the correct option.

4) D
- Rationale: The breast self-examination should be performed monthly, 7 days after the onset of the menstrual period. Performing the examination weekly is not recommended. At the onset of menstruation and during ovulation, hormonal changes occur that may alter breast tissue.

- Oncology Practice Questions Test-Taking Strategy: Option C can be eliminated easily because of the word weekly. Eliminate options A and B next because they are comparable or alike in the similarity that exists regarding the hormonal changes that occur during these times.

5) B, C, D, E
- Rationale: Complications of bowel tumors include bowel perforation, which can result in hemorrhage and peritonitis. Other complications include bowel obstruction, and fistula formation. Flatulence can occur but is not a complication; lactose intolerance also is not a complication of intestinal tumor.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, complications of a bowel tumor. Think about the location and pathophysiology associated with this type of tumor to answer correctly.

6) B
- Rationale: Following mastectomy, the arm should be elevated above the level of the heart. Simple arm exercises should be encouraged. No blood pressure readings, injections, intravenous lines, or blood draws should be performed on the affected arm. Cool compresses are not a suggested measure to prevent lymphedema from occurring.

- Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on the subject, preventing lymphedema. Note the relationship between lymphedema in the question and elevating in the correct option. Also, using general principles related to gravity will direct you to the correct option.


Proceed to the next set of questions...

Oncology Practice Questions NCLEX 7-10

Read More