Showing posts with label NCLEX ANSWERS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NCLEX ANSWERS. Show all posts

NCLEX Preparation Course - Level of Cognitive Ability - Analysis (Answers 1-25)

- Phenylketonuria is characterized by blood phenylalanine levels higher than 8 mg/dL. A normal level is lower than 2 mg/dL. A result of 1 mg/dL is a negative test result.

2) D
- Indicators that fluid volume deficit is resolving would be capillary refill less than 3 seconds, specific gravity of 1.002 to 1.025, urine output of at least 1 mL/kg/hour, and adequate tear production. Therefore, a capillary refill time shorter than 3 seconds is the only indicator that the child is improving. Urine output of less than 1 mL/kg/hr, a specific gravity of 1.030 and no tears would indicate that the deficit is not resolving.

3) B 
- Nephrotic syndrome is defined as massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipemia, and edema. Other manifestations include weight gain, periorbital and facial edema that is most prominent in the morning, leg, ankle, labial or scrotal edema, decreased urine output and urine that is dark and frothy, abdominal swelling, and blood pressure that is normal or slightly decreased.

NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 61-70)

NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI QUESTIONS (61-70) --> 


61) B
- Myelomeningocele is a type of neural tube defect characterized by herniation of spinal cord (spinal nerves) and the meninges at an opening in the spinal column forming a sac on the baby's back that is prone to infection and damage. Sometimes skin covers the sac. In other cases there is no skin above it so that the meninges and nerves are exposed to air.

The common complications associated with myelomeningocele are paralysis, hydrocephalus, meningitis, bladder and bowel incontinence, learning disabilities, and joint deformities (clubfoot and hip dysplasia).

Meningitis is an infection and inflammation of the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

Signs and Symptoms include:

1. Under 2 year old: High pitched cry, fever, vomiting, resistance to being held, bulging fontanel, poor feeding, opisthotonus.

2. Older children:
  • kernig's sign (pain on hamstring muscles on extension of legs with hips flexed)
  • bruzinskin sign (flexion at hip and knee with flexion of neck)
  • tripod posturing
  • nucchal rigidity
  • vomiting
  • high fever
  • headache
  • skin rash especially near the armpits or on the hands or feet
  • rapid progression of small hemorrhages under the skin
  • photophobia
  • seizures
  • progressive lethargy and drowsiness
  • sunset eyes is seen in hydrocephalus
Depressed fontanel is seen in dehydration. Infants with brain infection and increased intracranial pressure usually have tense bulging fontanel.

62) C

- high pitch cry is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The neck and the back of the infant with meningitis is usually rigid not the extremities.

63) C
- Meningocele and myelomeningocele requires surgery to put the meninges and the spinal cord back in place and close the opening in the vertebrae. The opening is closed by covering it with skin and muscle. Any sensory and motor deficit the child has will not be corrected by surgery. Therefore the child will need a urologist to help with problems in bowel and bladder incontinence. Routine bowel and bladder program needs to be initiated by age 2.
Physical therapy and rehabilitation is also important to help the child deal with motor loss, the child will need leg exercises that would prepare him for walking using crutches or braces when she get older.

64) D
- the child should be monitored for possible complication after surgery which are:
  • hydrocephalus - observe for signs of increased ICP, palpate fontanel if it is bulging every 4 hours, observe for high pitched cry, measure head circumference every 8 to 12 hours
  • meningitis - observe for fever, irritability, stiff-neck, poor suck, lethargy
  • spinal cord dysfunction - incontinence, paralysis
Although a,b, and c are also performed, it is the daily measurement of the head circumference that is most important.

65) D
- preoperative care for Nicole would be:
  • prevention of infection
  • administer prescribed antibiotics
  • do not apply diaper to protect the sac from irritation and contamination
  • observe for signs of infection increased ICP, meningitis (fever, irritability, nunchal rigidity)
Prevention of Trauma to the exposed meninges
  • cover the exposed sac with sterile moistened saline dressing
  • place newborn in prone position with legs abducted to prevent dislocation and the head turned on the side
  • protect sac with sponge doughnut when holding infant
  • observe for leakage
66) A
- this client is now stable. So, he can safely be discharged


67) C
- apply dermatologic medications thinly (1/8" to 1/16") to prevent systemic absorption of the medications. This in turn, prevents toxicity.


68) C
- Pyloric Stenosis is a genetic disorder common among first born white male infants characterized by narrowing of the pylorus (the sphincter between the stomach and small intestines) due to edema (from hypertrophy and hyperplasia of cells) preventing the passage of food from the stomach to the intestines. This disorder becomes evident around 4 weeks among formula fed babies and 6 weeks in breastfed babies.

Diagnostic Test: Observe for peristalsis while drinking
  • before drinking - palpate RUQ and locate pyloric mass - round, firm, size of an olive
  • while drinking - observe gastric peristalsis wave from left to right side of abdomen
  • after drinking - child experiences projectile vomiting
On examination, the nurse will find:

1. An olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant on palpation which is the hypertrophied pylorus

2. Vomiting caused by narrowing of pyloric sphincter prevents passage of food from stomach to intestines
  • vomiting after feeding which smell sour due to hydrochloric acid
  • vomitus does not contain bile because it has not yet reached intestines
  • the child is hungry and will feed after vomiting because the child does not feel nauseated
69) C
- Fredet-Ramstedt Operation - it is the surgical incision of the pyloric to enlarge the opening from the esophagus to the stomach.

Pre-op:
  • IVF to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalance-isotonic saline or 5% glucose
  • NPO, provide pacifier
  • IV calcium for tetany
Post-op:
  • NGT to drain GIT secretions and prevent abdominal distention - apply adequate restraint on the child to prevent him from pulling the tubing
  • if child feels nauseated while NGT is in place, suspect obstruction of NGT
  • down's regimen of feeding: - 1 tsp glugose water by bottle feeding every hour for four hours to see if the child can retain clear fluids. If child did not vomit, give 2 tsp every hour for four hours. Then half strength formula every four hours. By 24 to 48 hours, the child is receiving full or regular strength formula
  • place on infant seat of in upright position after feeding to prevent vomiting
  • the child must take formula to prevent bowel adhesion. Do not keep on NPO for a long time
  • the child must not take more than required formula to prevent distention and damage of suture
  • expect to be discharge at 48 hours after surgery
  • surgical site in the abdomen may be covered by colloidion - fold diaper below it. If soaked with urine or feces, wash with soap and water and keep dry


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 51-60)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking VI (51-60) --> 

    51) A
    Zidovudine causes bone marrow depression that results to neutropenia. WBC levels should be monitored regularly

    52) D
    HIV can be transferred through the colostrum. Therefore, breastfeeding may not be advised.

    53) B
    -
    AIDS and HBV infection are both bloodborne infections. Both patients do not have contagious diseases.
    Client with other forms of infection especially airborne ones and those with lowered resistance to infection should not be roomed-in with the client with AIDS.

    54) A
    - the client who had multiple body piercing has the highest risk to develop HIV because of risk of exposure to contaminated needles.

    55) C
    - both clients have infections; however, the infections are not contagious, so they could be roomed-in.

    56) D
    - a burn is a tissue damage resulting from excessive heat, electricity, caustic chemicals or radiation.
    The method for assessing the degree of burn injury according to source, depth, severity, and extent:

    DEPTH - measures according to degree or thickness of injured area. When assessing depth, see the appearance of the burn and the sensitivity of the area to pain as major criteria.
    • Partial Thickness or first degree burn - involved the epidermal layer of the skin. The skin appears pinkish or red, blanches with pressure and is painful but usually without large blisters. Mild sunburn is an example of this type of burn. It heals without treatment within 3-5 days
    • Moderate to deep partial thickness burn or Second degree burn - involves the dermal layer of the skin with the skin appearing pinkish, reddish, or whitish with blisters. Burn from hot steam is an example. This type of burn heals slowly and may require weeks (21-28 days) before the skin can regenerate completely.
    • Full thickness burns or Third degree burn - involves the entire layers of the skin, blood vessels and subcutaneous tissue. Nerves, hair follicles and sweat glands are also destroyed. It is not painful because nerves have been destroyed. This type of burn injury has a waxy and leathery appearance. Burn will not heal spontaneously because skin cannot regenerate due to destruction of the epithelial layer and grafting is needed to regain normal skin look.
    EXTENT - body area affected using the:
    • Rule of Nines in adults
    • Lund and Browder method can be used in both children and adults
    SEVERITY
    - Minor
    • less than 15% TBSA burn in adults less than 40 years old
    • less than 10% TBSA burn in adults more than 40 years old
    • less than 10% TBSA burn in children less than 10 years old with:
    • less than 2% TBSA full thickness burn and no cosmetic or functional risk to face, eyes, ears, hands, feet or perineum.
    - Moderate
    • 15-25% TBSA burn in adults less than 40 years old
    • 10-20% TBSA burn in adults more than 40 years old
    • 10-20% TBSA burn in children less than 10 years old with
    • less than 10% TBSA full thickness burn and no cosmetic or functional risk to face, eyes, ears, hands, feet or perineum.
    -Severe/Major
    • 25% TBSA burn in adults less than 40 years old
    • 20% TBSA burn in adults more than 40 years old
    • 20% TBSA burn in adults less than 10 years old or
    • burns face, eyes, ears, hands, feet, or perineum that will result to cosmetic or functional disability or
    • high voltage electrical burn injury or
    • all burns injuries with concomitant inhalation injury or major trauma
    SOURCE OR CAUSE
    • thermal burns - are caused by flame, flash (explosion) and scald injuries
    • Electrical burns -are caused by lightning and electrical current
    • chemical burns - are due to ingestion or contact with caustic chemicals or corrosive substances such as muriatic acid
    • inhalation injury is caused by inhalation of noxious chemical or heat.
    57) D
    - The percentage designated for each burned part of the body using the rule of nines:
    • Head and Neck: 9%
    • right upper extremity: 9%
    • left upper extremity: 9%
    • anterior trunk 18%
    • posterior trunk 18%
    • right lower extremity: 18%
    • left lower extremity: 18%
    • perineum: 1%
    58) B
    - The first priority in burn accidents is to stop the burning process which includes:

    Smothering the Flame

    Stop burning by removing person from source of burn and extinguishing burning
    • for a flame burn, drop person to the ground and log roll the person to extinguish the flames
    • use lots of water to douse the flames and cool the wound quickly. Remove any jewelry from the burned area as metal retains heat and may continue burning. Do not remove adherent clothing. Do not immense a large wound in water
    • For chemical burn, brush off dry chemicals and immediately cleanse with a lot of running clean, cool water. Remove clothing and again rinse the injured area with clean coll water for 15 to 20 minutes to remove all chemicals. Never neutralize the chemical.
    • For electrical burns, turn off the source of electricity immediately or separate the person from electrical current by using nonconductive equipment. Assess cardiopulmonary function and start CPR immediately.
    Cover the person to decrease pain caused by air touching exposed nerve endings, minimize bacterial contamination and decrease loss of body heat

    Do not apply ointments or creams to burn at this time

    Transport the person as quickly as possible to the nearest emergency room. If treatment is delayed for more than one hour, IV fluid replacement may be started if qualified people are available. Usually nothing is given by mouth since nausea and vomiting may occur as a result of paralytic ileus secondary to stress of injury. If medical attention will be delayed for hours and the person can tolerate oral fluids, give a mixture of water, salt and sodium bicarbonate to replace fluid and salt and combat acidosis.

    59) A
    - normal urine output should be 30 ml/hr or 100/4hrs
    Factors affecting normal urinary elimination:
    • fluid intake - most important factor in determining amount of urine; more intake more urine formation
    • loss of body fluid - increase loss of body fluids causes the kidney to reabsorb more water resulting in decreased volume of urine
    • nutrition - dietary intake affects urination. Caffeine and alcohol has diuretic effect that increases urine volume. Food with high water content can increase urine output
    • body position - position for voiding effects urinary output. A person voids well when he or she is in a comfortable voiding position
    • psychological factors - several factors can induce or prevent a person from voiding. Privacy and running water may encourage voiding. Cold bedpan and stress may prevent voiding because of contraction of muscles involved in the normal voiding process.
    60) C
    - cradle bed should be used to support the sheets that cover the patient so that it will not get in contact with the wounds of the patient. This is to allow them to dry, reduce pain and prevent infection.
    Stryker Frame facilitates changing of position by use of two mattress sections. The patient lies on the bottom mattress while the top mattress is secured and the entire frame is rotated manually in turning the patient.
    Circulo-electric bed is a rotating frame that is electrically operated to turn the patient from head to toe.
    Dressings not bandages are used on burned wounds.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 41-50)

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    41) A- the nursing assistant is allowed to assist client out of bed using Hoyer lift. Catheterization, change of dressing should be done by the LPN/LVN. Providing psychosocial care is done by the RN.

    42) A
    - suction should be applied only during withdrawal of the catheter, not during insertion. This is to prevent trauma to the mucous membrane of the airway. Therefore choice A requires intervention by the nurse. Whe nursing action is incorrect, it requires intervention.

    43) C
    - a diagonal figure-of-eight bandaging ensures conical shape of the stump. This will facilitate prosthesis fitting.
    Choices A, B, D are incorrect actions by the LPN/LVN when wrapping a stump. Therefore, these actions would require intervention by the nurse.

    44) D
    - following-up tasks delegated to LVN is a responsibility of the RN. A status report will be used as a basis as to what help is needed by the LPN/LVN.

    45) A
    -the CNA/UAP is competent in setting up Bryant's traction. Choices B, C (nursing process) will be done by the RN. Choice D will be done by the LVN.

    46) D
    - ethical dilemmas are addressed by the American Nurses Association's Code for Nurses.

    47) A, D, and F
    - the RN performs phases of the nursing process. Clients who need assessment, health teachings, evaluation and those with unstable conditions should be cared for by the RN.
    Choices B, C, and E will be delegated to the LPN/LVN, the "technical doer."

    48) A
    - causes of deficient fluid volume include vomiting, diarrhea, conditions that cause increased respiration or increased urinary output, insufficient IV fluid replacement, draining fistulas, and the presence of an ileostomy or colostomy. A client with congestive heart failure or decreased kidney function, or a client receiving frequent wound irrigation, is at risk for excess fluid volume.

    49) D
    - assessment findings in a client with deficient fluid volume include increased respirations and heart rate, decreased central venous pressure (CVP), weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, decreased urine volume, increased specific gravity of the urine, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. The normal CVP is between 4 and 11 cm H2O. A client with dehydration has a low CVP. The assessment findings in option A, B, and C are seen in a client with excess fluid volume.

    50) B
    - the causes of excess fluid volume include decreased kidney function, congestive heart failure, the use of hypotonic fluids to replace isotonic fluid losses, excessive irrigation of wounds and body cavities, and excessive ingestion of sodium. The client taking diuretics, the client with ileostomy, and the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning are at risk for deficient fluid volume.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 31-40)

    - the RN performs nursing process, including assessment. Choices A and D are for the CNA; choice B is for the LVN

    32) A
    - a client should not be grasped under the arm to pull him/her up in bed. This is to prevent injury in the axillary area and shoulder joints. Therefore, the situation needs intervention by the RN.

    33) A
    - giving information to the physician is appropriate nursing action. The RN is responsible for the LVN's actions.

    34) B
    - when delegating tasks, the RN should give concrete, specific, and clear directions. The RN should also explain the expected outcome of the task/action.


    35) C
    - the best source of information the nurse can refer to regarding which tasks are appropriate for which level of personnel in the Nurse Practice Act in the State the nurse is practicing.

    36) A
    - when injecting heparin subcutaneously, massaging the site should be avoided to prevent hematoma formation. Therefore, choice A needs intervention by the nurse.

    37) B
    - the LVN/LPN is allowed to do the task of suctioning tracheostomy. Clients with unstable condition should be assigned to the RN.

    38) C
    - the nurse should perform admission assessment. The RN should not delegate performing nursing process to the LVN/LPN.

    39) A
    - only tasks can be delegated by the RN, not accountability.

    40) C
    - turning the anti-embolism stockings inside out facilitates its application on the leg of the client.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 21-30)

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    21) A
    - prothrombin time of 25 seconds is prolonged. Normal value is 11 to 16 seconds. Prolonged prothrombin time increases risk of bleeding during and after tonsillectomy. This should be reported to the physician.

    22) D
    - absence of breath sounds on one side of the chest indicates atelectasis. A client with problem of airway or oxygenation should be given highest priority. ABC is a priority.

    23) A
    - gingival hyperplasia indicates toxic reaction to anticonvulsant, specifically Dilantin. This needs follow-up. The other choices are normal findings.

    24) A
    - inform the relative on the nearest health service facility, in case a problem or emergency situation arises.

    25) B, C, D, F
    - comprise signs and symptoms of Cushing's reflex. The triad components of Cushing's reflex are blood pressure (systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressure), pulse rate and respiratory rate.

    26) A
    - silvery white scales characterize psoriasis
    Choice B - describes scabies
    Choice C - describes measles
    Choice D - describes herpes zoster

    27) B
    - mestinon, a cholinergic is best given 20 to 30 minutes before meals to prevent choking in a client with Myasthenia gravis.

    28) C
    - SIADH is hypersecretion of ADH. The client experiences excessive retention of water. Polyuria is not a manifestation of the disease. Polyuria is a characteristic of diabetes insipidus.

    29) A, C, D
    -these are nursing interventions after tonsillectomy. Bleeding should be prevented and monitored. It is manifested by frequent swallowing. Ice cream contains milk. This increases viscosity of the saliva that riggers clearing of the throat. Deep breathing is indicated. However, coughing is to be avoided to prevent bleeding.

    30) B
    - the LVN/LPN is allowed to do wound care and change of wound dressing. Choice A is a task to be done by RN; choices C and D are tasks to be done by the CNA.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 11-20)

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    11) B
    - application of warm compress relieves joint pains in a client with sickle cell anemia. Warm compress also thins the blood. This prevent further accumulation of clumped RBC's in the joints. The management for sickle cell anemia HHOP - Hydration, Heat application, Oxygenation, Pain medication.


    12) D
    - the client with SLE experience joint pain. ROM exercises will help relieve the pain. Exposure to sunlight should be avoided by the client with SLE to prevent exacerbation of signs and symptoms.

    13) D, E, F, G
    - these are not included when giving information about hepatitis A.
    Choices A, B, C are to be included when giving health teachings to a client with hepatitis A.

    14) A, B, C, F
    - thse are appropriate interventions for a patient with Addison's disease which is hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones. Low secretion of glucocorticoid: hypoglycemia, low resistance to infection; low secretion of mineralocorticoid ( aldosterone): loss of sodium and water, hypotension, retention of potassium.

    15) C
    - assess the client first, before implementation

    16) A
    - the post CVA client requires services of different members of the health team during rehabilitation.

    17) D
    - herbal medicines believed to relieve menstrual cramps are Black Cohosh, Evening Primrose and Dong quai.

    18) A
    - after herniorrhaphy, straining at stool should be avoided to prevent weakening of the repair. Increasing fluid intake prevents constipation.

    19) B
    - aspiration causes airway obstruction that may lead to death. Therefore, this should be given highest priority. (ABC is priority).

    20) A
    - the nurse should take the BP on the other arm. Hypocalcemia is manifested by bilateral carpopedal spasm.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises VI (Answers 1-10)

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    1) A
    - in multiple myeloma, bone destruction causes hypercalcemia. Therefore, giving calcium supplement is inappropriate. Hypercalcemia causes polyuria. The client should increase his fluid intake to prevent dehydration and renal stone formation. The client with multiple myeloma is at high risk for fracture and infection. Falls and infection should be avoided.

    2) C
    - in a client with AV-fistula, arm precaution should be observed. This means no BP taking or any from of puncturing on the affected arm. Therefore, the RN should intervene when a CNA takes the BP on the affected arm.

    3) B
    - Hawthorn promotes peripheral vasodilation, increases coronary circulation, acts as antioxidant. It is indicated for treatment of mild hypertension, early CHF, stable angina.

    4) A
    - echinacea is immune enhancer. It is also used to treat respiratory tract infections and urinary tract infections.

    5) C
    - caloric testing is also called Caloric Ice Water testing. Primarily, it involves introducing cold water into the ear. It is also called oculovestibular test. The normal result is conjugate nystagmus of the eyes away from the ear stimulated.

    6) C
    - the dead client's arms should be positioned on the side, not across his chest. The client should be wrapped with linen/shroud (according to the institution's policy).

    7) C
    - dehydration is primarily characterized by dark, concentrated urine. Urine output is one of the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Skin turgor is not used as an indicator for dehydration among the elderly because their skin is normally wrinkled.

    8) C
    - when a client receives heparin, inspect site of injection for hematoma. This indicates bleeding at the area and should not be used as injection site. When administering heparin subcutaneous, do not aspirate, do not massage the site after injection. This is to prevent hematoma formation at the site. Needle gauge used be the same as intradermal (gauge 25, 26, 27).

    9) B
    - application of tourniquet above the area bitten by a rattle snake is the most appropriate immediate action while waiting for the emergency rescue team. This is to prevent spread of the venom in the blood circulation.

    10) D
    - pericardial friction rub indicates pericardial effusion, a dangerous complication of SLE.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 21-30)

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    21) A
    - magnesium-rich foods are as follows: green leafy vegetables, avocado, tuna fish, yogurt, cooked rolled oats, milk, peas, potatoes, pork, beef, chicken, raisins, peanut butter, cauliflower. Meat is the richest source of magnesium.

    22) A

    - the post-thyroidectomy client is experiencing hypocalcemia which may lead to seizures. The nurse should give priority to this client.

    23) B
    - Schilling's test involves administration of oral radioactive vitamin B12, followed by IM nonradioactive vitamin B12. Then, 24 hour urine collection is done. This is done to diagnose pernicious anemia.

    24) B
    - in multiple myeloma, bone destruction occurs; calcium is lost from the bones. This causes the bones to become weak and brittle. The client is prone to fracture. Factors that promote safety prevent fracture like removing all loose rugs on the floor, should be implemented.

    25) C
    - glaucoma causes loss of vision, especially peripheral vision, initially. Therefore, the client is at highest risk for fall among the clients mentioned.

    26) C
    - blood should be transfused within 30 minutes from the time it was taken out from the blood bank. This is to prevent hemolysis. The nurse should attend to this client first.

    27) B, C, D, E, F
    - elevated WBC level indicates infection. Therefore, measures to prevent further infection should be implemented. Raw fruits and vegetables should be avoided. They may be sources of bacteria

    28) C
    - MRSA requires contact precaution. Gown and gloves should be worne when caring for the client.

    29) D
    - an expert nursing assistant should be assigned to the client who requires assistance in bathing

    30) A
    - low platelet count increases risk for bleeding. The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000/ cu mm


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 11-20)

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    11) A
    - cheese and milk are rich in sodium.

    12) B
    - the client with burns in the face experiences airway obstruction; he may also experience suffocation due to inhalation of smoke and therefore should be given highest priority.

    13) A

    - thickened liquid diet is easier to swallow and is appropriate in a client experiencing dysphagia. Broth, sliced fruits and spaghetti can easily be aspirated.

    14) C
    - exposure to sunlight causes exacerbation of manifestations of SLE. Therefore, this should be avoided.

    15) C
    - decreased secretion of adrenal cortex hormones results to hyponatremia, hypotension, hypoglycemia and hyperkalemia. (In addison's crisis: everything is low and slow, except potassium).

    16) A
    - the expected therapeutic effect of heparin is: Control (normal value) of PTT/APTT X 2 to 2.5

    17) A, B, E, F
    - dumping syndrome, a complication of gastric surgery is due to rapid gastric emptying into the jejunum causing fluid shift: IVC (intravascular compartment) to ISC (interstitial compartment) producing shock-like manifestations. Hypotension and cold, clammy skin also characterizes shock.

    18) A
    - decreased secretion of aldosterone leads to loss of sodium ion and water causing decreased in BP.

    19) A
    - mode of transmission of MRSA is direct contact with skin secretions. The stethoscope should be left in the client's room.

    20) B
    - this is the only correct nursing action among the choices. Restraints should be secured on the bedframe not on the siderails. Chemical restraints like giving valium, should be used with great precaution. PRN order for restraints is legally unacceptable.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises V (Answers 1-10)

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    1) B
    - a client who had undergone vasectomy is considered sterile and may have unprotected sex after 3 negative semen analysis.

    2) D
    - septic shock is caused by severe infection. Toxins cause massive vasodilation causing decreased tissue perfusion and decreased tissue oxygenation.

    3) A
    - after verbal stimulation, tactile stimulation should be done, e.g. painful stimulation.

    4) C
    - anasarca is generalized edema. Decrease in edema indicates improvement.

    5) B
    - the hand should be in neutral position to prevent further nerve injury.

    6) D
    - serum sodium level of 165 mEq/L is elevated. Therefore this needs to be reported. Normal level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges.

    7) A
    - pericardial friction rub indicates pericarditis, a serious complication of SLE.

    8) B
    - sickle cell anemia is inherited from both parents. Sons and daughters may be affected by sickle cell anemia.

    9) B
    - release of information without patient's consent is a breach to right to privacy.

    10) A
    - decreased blood pH, decreased HCO3 lead to metabolic acidosis.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises IV (Answers 21-30)

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    21) D
    - elevated alpha-fetoprotein indicates neural tube defects and chromosomal defects.

    22) A
    - addison's crisis is characterized by acute adrenal insufficiency. It is precipitated by stress, infection, trauma or surgery. It can cause severe hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia and shock.

    23) A
    - annual digital rectal examination (DRE) is required for males who are over 40 years of age. This is to detect BPH and rectal cancer.

    24) D
    - pericardial friction rub indicates pericarditis which is a serious complication of SLE and needs follow-up. Choices A, B, and C are characteristic manifestations of the disease.

    25) C
    - the client who will undergo mammogram should not apply cream, powder, or deodorant in the axillae. These may cause false positive result.

    26.) A
    - bed rest for 5 to 7 days should be maintained by the client with deep vein thrombosis. This is to prevent dislodgement of blood clot. Massaging the legs should be avoided to prevent dislodgement of blood clots. Compression stockings should be worn by the patient before getting out of bed. The legs should be elevated to promote venous return and relieve edema.

    27) C
    - adequate hydration prevents further sickling of RBC's. The treatment for sickle cell crisis: H-H-O-P (hydration, heat application, oxygen, pain medication).

    28) C
    - anaphylactic reaction may occur from antibiotic therapy. Stop the IV infusion of the medication if signs and symptoms of allergic reaction start to occur.

    29) B
    - the client is not responding to the insulin treatment. Therefore, he should be given priority by the nurse.

    30) C
    - an adolescent requires well-balanced diet to support his/her nutritional requirements. This is because adolescent stage is characterized by growth spurt.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises IV (Answers 11-20)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking IV (11-20) -->

    11) B
    - bleeding leads to hypovolemic shock (blood loss of 20% or 1L is fatal).

    12) Vesicles

    13) C
    - the restraints should be secured on the bedframe not on the side rails to prevent trauma on the extremities.

    14) B
    - the incident report should not be placed in the client's record. The incident should be documented in the client's record, as well.

    15) D
    - beneficence means doing or promoting good. Choices A, B, and C are practices of nonmaleficence.

    16) A
    - a nurse floated to another unit should be assigned to a client that requires care similar to his/her experience of training. Blood transfusion can be dealt with by an OB unit nurse.

    17) A
    - to prevent/minimize pruritus in a client with jaundice, keep the environment cool. Warm environment causes accumulation of perspiration on the skin that worsens pruritus.

    18) D
    - ginseng is used for relief of stress, to boost energy, give digestive support and support immune system.
    Choice A (feverfew) is used to relieve migraine headache
    Choice B (aloe vera) is used for skin conditions (burns, insect bites, sunburn, dandruff, psoriasis)
    Choice C (cranberry) is used to treat urinary tract infection

    19) C
    - drinking too much fluid before bedtime will cause nocturia (frequent voiding during the night).

    20) A
    - monitoring of VS can be done by a CNA. Choices B,C, and D can be assigned to the LVN.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises IV (Answers 1-10)

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    1) B
    - the situation describes signs and symptoms of dehydration.
    Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L
    Normal BUN is 5-25 mg/dl

    2) B
    - tetenus immune globulin provides passive immunity. This is recommended if the client had not received tetanus immunization or when tetanus immunization history could not be determined.

    3) D
    - DIC - is body's response to overstimulation of clotting and articulating processes in response to injury or disease. In DIC, bleeding occurs due to depletion of platelets in the general circulation which is due to massive blood clotting (decreased fibrinogen, increased protime, increased PTT, decreased platelets).

    4) A
    - tetracycline and neomycin (an aminoglyceride) may cause respiratory depression. Penicillins and aminoglycerides when combined with muscle relaxants and anesthesia may also cause respiratory depression.

    5) D
    - hemophilia is a defect in clotting mechanism of blood. It is characterized by prolonged bleeding; therefore any form of trauma including injections should be avoided.

    6) C
    - this client is at risk for falls and is experiencing other-directed violence. The nurse has great responsibility in protecting the client from harm and in protecting other clients from harm, as well.

    7) A
    - postop client should be roomed-in with a client without infection. Age and gender should also be considered.

    8) A
    - the client with life-threatening problem like profuse bleeding should be given highest priority. Priority: ABC.

    9) A
    - STD's (sexually-transmitted diseases) like Chlamydia may cause sterility.

    10) B
    - the manifestations describe huntington's disease. Creutzfeldt-jacob's disease is a progressive disease of CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by demyelination of the central nervous system. Parkinson's disease affects the EPS that leads to decreased dopamine production.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises III (Answers 21-30)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking III (21-30) -->

    21) A
    - shigellosis is a type of gastroenteritis. The microorganism is transmitted through oro-fecal route.

    22) B
    - marfan syndrome is characterized by tall, thin skeleton. The arms and legs are disproportionately long.

    23) A
    - blood loss during surgery and decreased aldosterone secretion that leads to sodium and water loss, require fluid and electrolyte replacement. This is to prevent hypovolemic shock.

    24) A
    - absence of drainage from the ileostomy for six hours indicates obstruction. This situation should be given highest priority. Ileostomy normally has continuous drainage of watery feces.

    25) B
    - sexual activity after protastectomy is resumed when healing is complete and comfort is reassured and usually this is within 2-3 weeks after discharge.

    26) C
    - the statement of the client indicates suicidal ideation. This should be given highest priority (Safety is a priority).

    27) A
    - raising the knee-gatch causes pressure at the popliteal area. This causes venous stasis. Therefore, avoid raising knee-gatch to prevent thrombophlebitis.

    28) D
    - the charge nurse should call the security. The security will arrange for the nurse's transport home. Do not allow the nurse to drive when he is under the influence of alcohol. It is not safe to allow the nurse who smells alcohol to continue caring for patients.

    29) C
    - Bell's palsy is paralysis of the facial nerves. Cold application will cause hypersensitivity of the side of the face.

    30) B
    - potassium level is high which may cause dysrhythmias/cardiac arrest. Cardiac monitoring should be done.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises III (Answers 11-20)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking III (11-20) -->

    11) A
    - koplik's spots in the mouth are characteristic manifestations of rubeola. Clusters of vesicles in the trunk are characteristics of herpes zoster. Desquamation of skin at the tips of the fingers and toes is a manifestation of kawasaki's disease. Linear burrows in the skin are characteristics of scabies.

    12) B
    - suicide plans are usually carried out during period of " normalcy". This is the time when the client has the energy to implement suicide plans.

    13) A
    - delay of necessary treatment without reasonable cause is an act of negligence by the nurse.

    14) B
    - reading of O2 saturation will be inaccurate if it is placed on the little finger.

    15) D
    - the best indicator of nutritional status is the weight. Weight gain indicates effectiveness of TPN therapy.

    16) A
    - talking loudly involves use of hogh-pitched sound. Elderly have difficulty understanding high-pitched sound. When communicating with elderly, clearly enunciate words and talk in a normal tone of voice.

    17) A
    - airway should be given highest priority. Deviation of trachea to the left indicates mediastinal shift. This leads to airway obstruction.

    18) B
    - self-awareness is important to establish therapeutic nurse-patient relationship.

    19) D
    - focusing on feelings and making self available will encourage the patient to verbalize his feelings, fears, and concerns.

    20) A
    - the charge nurse should review the charts of patients. This is the most objective source of information about care received by the patients including medication administration.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises III (Answers 1-10)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking III (1-10) -->
          

    1) A
    - to assess for tactile fremitus, place the palms of the hands on the anterior and posterior chest. The client is asked to say "nine-nine-nine" or "tres-tres-tres". Increased tactile fremitus indicates consolidation.

    2) C
    - the most effective measure to prevent poisoning especially among children is to throw out old and unused drugs. Choices A, B and D may not necessarily avoid the child from obtaining poisonous substances.

    3) A
    - clostridium difficile is bacterial enterocolitis. It is common among those taking antimicrobial. The client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is at high risk to develop the disease.

    4) B
    - providing psychosocial care by making self available to clients in distress is therapeutic.

    5) A
    - MMR, a live virus vaccine is not given to a child who is immunocompromised.

    6) C
    - hematoma on the side of the neck or behind the ear (Battle's sign) indicates basilar head injury. This may cause brainstem compression that may lead to cardiopulmonary arrest.

    7) A
    - a client with Addison's disease experiences decreased secretion of aldosterone. Therefore, there is increased excretion of sodium and water. Dehydration is a problem that becomes more serious if the client is on NPO.

    8) B
    - lateral or prone position will promote drainage from the mouth after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy and therefore, will prevent aspiration.

    9) B
    - continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber indicates that the machine is functioning well. If there's no bubbling, the nurse must check the suction pressure. If there is no drainage.

    10) C
    - this prevents pooling of venous blood by gravity.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises II (Answers 11-20)

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    11) A
    - hypertension may cause rupture of aneurysm. This leads to internal hemorrhage, shock, and finally death. Therefore this client should be given highest priority.

    12) C
    - remove gloves first to prevent contamination of the face, neck and other parts of the body before removing the other barriers.

    13) A
    - these signs and symptoms indicate alcohol withdrawal. The client is likely to experience alcohol withdrawal syndrome because he had abstained from alcohol from the time he had undergone surgery.

    14) A
    - serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which is a common side effect of potassium-wasting diuretic. The normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L

    15) A
    - only RN's are allowed to deal with clients receiving narcotic through PCA device. This client requires assessment and evaluation. (B, C and D may be delegated).

    16) B
    - regular pattern of sleep and waking time will most likely promote sleep. Hot tea is a stimulant; taking naps should be avoided so that the client can sleep during the night. To be able to sleep, the client should go to bed only when sleepy.

    17) B
    - a client with problem on breathing should be given highest priority (Principle: ABC's are given highest priority)

    18) D
    - Mormons do not drink alcohol, coffee, or tea. Adult Mormons practice fasting every first Sunday of the week.

    19) C
    -CNA's are not allowed to deal with nasogastric tubes. The LVN should be the one to clamp the NGT.

    20) C
    - this client may go into hypertensive crisis, that may increase the risk for hemorrhagic CVA. The client whose condition may pose life-threatening problem should be given highest priority. (Note: if an intervention to a problem does not achieve an expected outcome, this situation is a priority).


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises II (Answers 1-10)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking II (1-10) -->

    1) D
    - hypermagnesemia inhibits/reduces acetylcholine release, causing decrease in neuromuscular irritability as manifested by loss of deep tendon reflexes.

    2) B
    - a client will develop hepatitis D only when he/she has hepatitis B

    3) C
    - Hindus are vegetarians.

    4) C
    - use the principle of ABC when setting priorities for caring clients. (The client with problem in Airway, Breathing, and Circulation are at highest risk for morbidity and mortality).

    5) D
    - the client should be able to chew, before giving solid foods. Presence of bowel sounds was assessed before full liquid diet was initiated.

    6) B
    - numbness in the leg with cast indicates that the cast is too tight. This causes circulatory impairment. Among the 4 clients given, this is the client with most immediate danger because tissue hypoxia may lead to necrosis and gangrene formation.

    7) A, C, D, and E
    - peripheral venous access does not require surgical mask and sutures.

    8) C
    - NEVER recap needles to prevent needle stab. Use leak-proof, puncture-proof needle/sharp containers for, not the ordinary trash can.

    9) A, B, C, E
    - sickle cell crisis may be precipitated by: dehydration, hypoxia, fever and stress. Warm application is used to relieve joints pain in sickle cell crisis, not cold application.

    10) C
    - explore feelings. Allow the client to verbalize feelings, fears and concerns.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises I (Answers 21-30)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical thinking 21-30 -->

    21) C
    - focusing on client's feelings is therapeutic. Encouraging the client to verbalize makes him feel the sincerity and caring by the nurse

    22) C
    - protein and Vit. C-rich foods promote healing

    23) D
    - oxygen concentration of 90% indicates hypoxemia. Normal is 95-100%. Clients with problems in oxygenation should be given highest priority.

    24) A

    - hepatitis C is post-transfusion hepatitis. Among these clients, the one who undergoes hemodialysis is the one who receives blood transfusion.

    25) C
    - stroids mobilize glycogen stores in the liver that results to hyperglycemia. These drugs may also cause retention of sodium and water, and increase in excretion of potassium.

    26) D

    - if a client does not respond to verbal stimuli, the nurse would next use tactile stimulation.

    27) C
    - assisting a client in ambulation is a function that can be done by the CNA. The CNA is assigned to care for clients with stable condition.

    28) A
    - familiar objects will help the confused client regain memory/orientation

    29) C
    - respecting culture of people reflects respect for human dignity.

    30) A
    - the client who tries to dominate every situation is actually experiencing powerlessness. If he is allowed to make some decisions, he would develop sense of control.


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