Showing posts with label NCLEX Questions and Answers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NCLEX Questions and Answers. Show all posts

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 46-50)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

46. The nurse is caring for a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burns on the anterior lower legs and anterior thorax. Which of the following does the nurse expect to note during the emergent phase of the burn injury?

a) decreased heart rate
b) increased urinary output
c) increased blood pressure
d) elevated hematocrit levels

47. The nurse is caring for a client who suffered an inhalation injury from a wood stove. The carbon monoxide blood report reveals a level of 12%. Based on this level, the nurse would anticipate which of the following signs in the client?

a) coma
b) flushing
c) dizziness
d) tachycardia

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 41-45)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

41. A physician prescribes home health nurse visits for a child discharged with Reye's syndrome. During a home visit, a nurse instructs the parents about the residual effects of Reye's syndrome. Which statement, if made by the parents, indicates a need for further instruction?

a) we need to check for jaundiced skin and eyes everyday
b) we need to have the child nap during the day to provide rest
c) we need to decrease the stimuli at home to prevent increased intracranial pressure
d) we need to give frequent, small, nutritious meals to decrease the amount of vomiting

42. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a child scheduled for tonsillectomy. The nurse determines that which laboratory value is most significant to review?

a) creatinine
b) prothrombin
c) sedimentation rate
d) blood urea nitrogen level

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 36-40)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

36. A nurse assesses a client's surgical incision for signs of infection. Which finding by the nurse would be interpreted as a normal finding at the surgical site?

a) red, hard skin
b) serous drainage
c) purulent drainage
d) warm, tender skin

37.A nurse is monitoring the status of a postoperative client. The nurse would become most concerned with which of the following signs that could indicate an evolving complication?

a) increasing restlessness
b) a negative Homan's sign
c) hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
d) a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 86 bpm  

38. A nurse is reviewing a physician's order sheet for a preoperative client that states that the client must be NPO after midnight. The nurse would telephone the physician to clarify that which of he following medications should be given to the client and not withheld?

a) ferrous sulfate
b) prednisone (deltasone)
c) cyclobenzaprine (flexeril)
d) conjugated estrogen (premarin)

39. A client who has undergone preadmission testing has had blood drawn for serum laboratory studies, including a complete blood count, coagulation studies, and electrolytes and creatinine levels. Which of the following results should be reported to the surgeon's office by the nurse, knowing that it could cause surgery to be postponed?

a) sodium, 141 mEq/L
b) hemoglobing, 8.0 g/dL
c) platelets, 210,000 mm3
d) serum creatinine, 0.8 mg/dL

40.
A nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical unit. The nurse plans to monitor which of the following parameters most carefully during the next hour?

a) urinary output of 20 ml/hr
b) temperature of 37.6 C (99.6F)
c) blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
d) serous drainage on he surgical dressing





NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

36) B
- serous drainage is expected finding at a surgical site. The other options indicate signs of wound infection. Signs and symptoms of infection include warm, red, and tender skin around the incision. Purulent material may exit from drains or from separated wound edges. Infection may be caused by poor aseptic technique and a contaminated wound before surgical exploration. Wound infection usually appears 3 to 6 days after surgery. The client also may have a fever and chills.

37) A
- increasing restlessness is a sign that requires continuous and close monitoring because it could indicate a potential complication such as hemorrhage, shock or pulmonary embolism. Hypoactive bowel sounds heard in all quadrants are a normal occurrence, as in a negative Homan's sign. (A positive Homan's sign may indicate thrombophlebitis.) A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg with a pulse of 86 bpm is within normal limits.

38) B
- prednisone is a corticosteroid. With prolonged use, corticosteroids cause adrenal atrophy, which reduces the ability of the body to withstand stress. When stress is severe, corticosteroids are essential to life. Before and during surgery, dosages may be increased temporarily. Ferrous sulfate is an oral iron preparation used to treat iron deficiency anemia. Cyclobenzaprine is a skeletal muscle relaxant. Conjugated estrogen is an estrogen used for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women. These other three medications may be withheld before surgery without undue effects on the client.

39) B
- routine screening tests include a complete blood count, serum electrolyte analysis, coagulation studies, and serum creatinine tests. The complete blood count includes the hemoglobin analysis. All these values are within normal range, except the hemoglobin. If a client has a low hemoglobin level, the surgery likely could be postponed by the surgeon.

40) A
- urine output should be maintained at a minimum of 30 ml/hr for an adult. An output of less than 30 ml for each of 2 consecutive hours should be reported to the physician. A temperature higher than 37.7C (100F) or lower than 36.1C (97F) and a falling systolic blood pressure, lower than 90 mmHg, are usually considered reportable immediately. The client's preoperative or baseline blood pressure is used to make informed postoperative comparisons. Moderate or light serous drainage from the surgical site is considered normal.



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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability Analysis (31-35)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

31. The nurse enters a client's room to assess the client, who began receiving a blood transfusion 45 minutes earlier, and notes that the client is flushed and dyspneic. On assessment, the nurse auscultates the presence of crackles in the lung bases. The nurse determines that his client most likely is experiencing which complication of blood transfusion therapy?

a) bacteremia
b) hypovolemia
c) fluid overload
d) transfusion reaction

32. A client has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse evaluates that the client is benefiting most form this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following?

a) increased hematocrit level
b) increased hemoglobin level
c) decline of elevated temperature to normal
d) decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums

33. The nurse listening to morning reports learns that an assigned client received a unit of granulocytes the previous evening. The nurse makes a note to assess the results of which of the following daily serum laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the transfusion?

a) hematocrit level
b) erythrocytes count
c) hemoglobin level
d) white blood cell count

34. A client is brought to the emergency room having experienced blood loss related to an arterial laceration. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is ordered and transfused to replace fluid and blood loss. The nurse understands that he rationale for transfusing FFP in this client is to:

a) treat the loss of platelets
b) promote rapid volume expansion
c) that the transfusion must be done slowly
d) that it will increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

35. A nurse obtains an order from a physician to restrain a client by using a jacket restraint and instructs a nursing assistant to apply the restraint to the client. Which observation by the nurse indicates inappropriate application of the restraint by the nursing assistant?

a) a safety knot in the restraint straps
b) restraint straps that are safely secured to the side rails
c) jacket restraint straps that do not tighten when force is applied against them
d) jacket restraint secured so that two fingers can slide easily between the restraint and th client's skin





NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE


31) C
- with fluid overload, the client has the presence of crackles in addition to dyspnea. An allergic reaction, which is one type of blood transfusion reaction, would produce symptoms such as flushing, dyspnea, itching, and generalized rash. Hypovolemia is not a complication of blood transfusion. With bacteremia, the client would have a fever, which is not part of the clinical picture presented.

32) D
- platelet are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would occur when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells. An elevated temperature would decline to normal after infusion of granulocytes if those cells were instrumental in fighting infection in the body.

33) D
- the client who has neutropenia may receive a transfusion of granulocytes or white blood cells. These clients often have severe infections and are unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. The nurse notes the results of follow-up white blood cell counts to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse also continues to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of infection. Erythrocyte count and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are determined after transfusion of packed RBC.

34) B
- fresh frozen plasma is often used for volume expansion as a result of fluid and blood loss. It does not contain platelets, so it is not used to treat any type of low platelet count disorder. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfuse quickly. It will not specifically increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit level.

35) B
- the restraint straps are secured to the bed frame and never to the side rail to avoid accidental injury in the event that the side rail is released. A half-bow or safety knot should be used for applying a restraint because it does not tighten when force is applied against it and it allows quick and easy removal of the restraint in case of an emergency. The jacket restraint should be secure, and one to two fingers should slide easily between the restraint and the client's skin.



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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 26-30)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

26. A client is hypovolemic and plasma expanders are not available. The nurse anticipates that which of the following solutions available on the nursing unit will be prescribed by the physician?

a) 5% dextrose in water
b) 0.9% sodium chloride
c) 0.45% sodium chloride
d) 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

27. The nurse hears an attending physician asking an intern to prescribe a hypotonic intravenous (IV) solution for a client. Which of the following IV solutions would the nurse expect the intern to prescribe?

a) 5% dextrose in water
b) 10% dextrose in water
c) 0.45% sodium chloride
d) 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride

28. A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) begins to vomit. The nurse takes the client's blood pressure and it is 90/50 mm Hg, from a baseline of 125/78 mm Hg. The client's temperature is 100.8F orally, from a baseline of 99.2F orally. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing which complication of a blood transfusion?

a) septicemia
b) hyperkalemia
b) circulatory overload
d) delayed transfusion reaction

29. The nurse is told by a physician that a client in hypovolemic shock will require plasma expansion. The nurse anticipates receiving an order to transfuse which product?

a) albumin
b) platelets
c) cryoprecipitate
d) packed red blood cells

30. A physician tells a client that the client needs a blood transfusion and that the blood sample must be drawn first for blood typing and crossmatching. After the physician leaves, the client asks the nurse, "What exactly is blood type, anyway?" The nurse responds with which of the following statements?

a) the blood type represents an antigen found on the surface of the red blood cells
b) the blood type represents an antibody found on the surface of the red blood cells

c) the blood type represents an antibody that normally circulates in the blood plasma
d) the blood type represents an antigen that normally circulates in the blood plasma





NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

26.D
- a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride is hypertonic. An advantage of hypertonic solutions is that they may be used to treat hypovolemia when plasma expanders are not readily available. Options A and B are isotonic solutions. Option C is a hypotonic solution.

27) C
- hypotonic solutions contain a lower concentration of salt or more water than an isotonic solution. A solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is hypotonic. A solution of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is isotonic. Solutions of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) and 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride are hypertonic solutions.

28) A
- septicemia occurs with transfusion of blood contaminated with microorganisms. Signs include chills, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and the development of shock. Hyperkalemia causes weakness, paresthesias, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and dysrhythmias. Circulatory overload causes cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing, tachycardia, and hypertension. A delayed transfusion reaction can occur days to years after transfusion. Signs include fever, mild jaundice, and decreased hematocrit level.

29) A
- albumin may be used as plasma expander. Platelets are used when the client's platelet count is low. Cryoprecipitate is useful in treating bleeding from hrmophilia or disseminated intravascular coagulopathy because it is rich in clotting factors. Packed RBC replace erythrocytes and not a plasma expander.

30) A
- the major blood types are A, B, AB, and O. The blood type indicates an antigen found on the surface of the red blood cell. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (ABO incompatibility) can occur if a client receives blood that is not compatible with his or her blood type. Acute hemolytic reaction is the most serious adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.



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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 21-25)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

21. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) in the home setting has a weight gain of lb in 1 week. The nurse next assesses the client to detect the presence of which of the following?

a) thirst
b) polyuria
c) decreased blood pressure
d) crackles on auscultation of the lungs

22. A nurse is caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care medical-surgical unit. The nurse understands that which of the following clients would be the least likely candidate for parenteral nutrition (PN)?

a) a 66-year old client with extensive burns
b) a 42-year old client who has an open cholecystectomy
c) a 27-year old client with severe exacerbation of Crohn's disease
d) a 35-year old client with persistent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy.  

23. A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which of the following intravenous solutions will most likely be prescribed to increase intravascular volume, repalce immediate blood loss, and increase blood pressure?

a) 0.45% sodium chloride
b) 0.33% sodium chloride
c) 0.225% sodium chloride
d) lactated ringer's solution

24. The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the conditon of assigned clients. The nurse notes that a client's intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale, and swollen, and the solution is not infusing. The nurse concludes that which of the following complications has been experienced by the client?

a) infection
b) phlebitis
c) infiltration
d) thrombosis

25. The nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After taking approximate steps to care for client, the nurse documents in the medical record that the client expericed:

a) phlebitis of the vein
b) infiltration of the IV lin
c) hypersensitivity to the IV solution
d) allergic reaction to the IV catheter material




NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

21) D
- optimal weight gain on PN is 1 to 2 lb/week. The client who has a weight gain of 5 lb/week while receiving PN is likely to have fluid retention that can result in hypervolemia. Signs of hypervolemia include increased blood pressure, crackles on lung auscultation, a bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, headache, and weight gain more than desired. Options A and B are associated with hyperglycemia. Option C is likely to be noted in deficient fluid volume.

22) B
- parenteral nutrition is indicated in clients whose gastrointestinal tracts are not functional or who cannot take in a diet enterally for extended periods. Examples of these conditions include those of the clients identified in option A, C, and D. Other clients would be those who have had extensive surgery, have multiple fractures, are septic, or have advanced cancer or AIDS. The client with the open cholecystectomy is not a candidate because this client would resume regular diet within few days following surgery.

23) D
- the goal of therapy with this client is to expand intravascular volume as quickly as possible. Lactated ringer's (hypertonic solution) would increase intravascular volume and immediately replace lost fluid volume until a transfusion could be administered, resulting in an increase in the client's blood pressure. The solutions in option A, B, and C would not be given to this client because they are hypotonic solutions and, instead of increasing intravascular space, the solutions would move into the cells via osmosis.

24) C
- an infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line at another site. The other three options are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness.

25) A
- phlebitis at an IV site can be distinguished by client discomfort at the site and by redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. If phlebitis occurs, the nurse should discontinue the IV line and insert a new IV line at a different site. Coolness at the site would be noted if the IV catheter was infiltrated. An allergic reaction produces a rash, redness, and itching. A major reaction, such as hypersensitivity, can cause dyspnea, a swollen tongue, and cyanosis.



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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 16-20)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

16. An adult female client has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL. The nurse interprets that this result is most likely caused by which of the following conditions noted in the client's history?

a) dehydration
b) heart failure
c) iron deficiency anemia
d) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

17. The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she should include in her diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary modifications if she selects which of the following from her menu?

a) nuts and milk
b) coffee and tea
c) cooked rolled oats and fish
d) oranges and dark leafy vegetables

18. A client is being weaned from parenteral nutrition (PN) and is expected to begin taking solid food today. The ongoing solution rate has been 100 ml/hr. A nurse anticipates that which of the following orders regarding the PN solution will accompany the diet order?

a) discontinue the PN
b) decrease PN rate to 50 ml/hr
c) hang 1000 ml 0.9% normal saline
d) continue current infusion rate orders for PN

19. A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of headache. A nurse notes that the client has an increased blood pressure, bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, and crackles bilaterally. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which complication of PN therapy.

a) sepsis
b) air embolism
c) hypervolemia
d) hyperglycemia

20. A nurse enters the room of a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) and discovers that the electronic infusion pump has been shut off. After checking the line for patency and restarting the infusion, the nurse assesses the client for which of the following signs and symptoms?

a) fever and chills
b) dyspnea and hypotension
c) weakness, thirst, and excessive urination
d) weakness, shakiness, diaphoresis, and complaints of hunger




NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

16) C
-  the normal hemoglobin level for an adult female client is 12 to 15 g/dL. Iron deficiency anemia can result in lower hemoglobin level. Dehydration may increase the hemoglobin level by hemoconcentration. Heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may increase the hemoglobin level as a result of the body's need for more oxygen-carrying capacity.

17)  D
- dark green leafy vegetables are a good source of iron and oranges are a good source of vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. All other options are not food sources that are high in iron and vitamin C.

18) B
- when a client begins eating a regular diet after a period of receiving parenteral nutrition, the PN is decreased gradually. Parenteral nutrition that is discontinued abruptly can cause hypoglycemia. Clients often have anorexia after being without food for some time, and the digestive tract also is not used to producing the digestive enzymes that will be needed. Gradually decreasing the infusion rate allows the client to remain adequately nourished during the transition to a normal diet and prevents the occurrence of hypoglycemia. Even before clients are started on a solid diet, they are given clear liquids followed by full liquids to further ease the transition. A solution of normal saline will not provide the glucose needed during the transition of discontinuing the PN and also could cause the client to experience hypoglycemia.

19)  C
- the client's sign and symptoms are consistent with hypervolemia. The increased intravascular volume increases the blood pressure, whereas the pulse rate increases as the heart tries to pump the extra fluid volume. The volume also causes neck vein distention and shifting of fluid into the alveoli, resulting in lung crackles. The signs and symptoms presented in the question do not indicate hyperglycemia, air embolism, or sepsis.

20) D
- If the pump that is infusing PN shuts off for a period of time, the nurse assesses the client for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. These signs include weakness, shakiness, headache, anxiety, diaphoresis, and complaints of hunger. The blood glucose level will be lower than 70 mg/dL. The other signs and symptoms described are those of infection (option A), air embolism (option B), and hyperglycemia (option C).


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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 11-15)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

11. A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia with heart rate of 120 beats/min. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which of the following?

a) a decreased pH and an increased CO2
b) an increased pH and a decreased CO2
c) a decreased pH and a decreased HCO3
d) an increased pH with an increased HCO3


12. A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results indicate the following; pH is 7.12, pCO2 is 90 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 22 mEq/L. The nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition?

a) metabolic acidosis with compensation
b) respiratory acidosis with compensation
c) metabolic acidosis without compensation
d) respiratory acidosis without compensation


13. A nurse reviews the blood gas results of client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which of the following validates the nurse's findings?

a) pH 7.25, Pco2 50 mm Hg
b) pH 7.35, Pco2 40 mm Hg
c) pH 7.50, Pco2 52 mm Hg
d) pH 7.52, Pco2 28 mm Hg


14. A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Pco2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition?

a) metabolic acidosis, compensated
b) respiratory alkalosis, compensated
c) metabolic acidosis, uncompensated
d) respiratory alkalosis, uncompensated

15. A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium to treat deep vein thrombosis. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) time is 65 seconds. The client's baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. The nurse anticipates that which action is needed?

a) discontinuing the heparin infusion
b) increasing the rate of the heparin infusion
c) decreasing the rate of heparin infusion
d) leaving the rate of the heparin infusion at is




NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

11) D
- clients experiencing nausea and vomiting would most likely present with metabolic alkalosis resulting from loss of gastric acid, thus causing the pH and HCO3 to increase. Symptoms experienced by the client would include hypoventilation and tachycardia. Option A reflects a respiratory acidosis condition. Option B reflects a respiratory alkalosis condition. Option C reflects a metabolic acidosis condition.

12) D
- the acid-base disturbance is respiratory acidosis without compensation. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Pco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. In respiratory acidosis the pH is decreased and the Pco2 is elevated. The normal bicarbonate (HCO3) level is 22 to 27 mEq/L. Because the bicarbonate is still within normal limits, the kidneys have not had time to adjust for this acid-base disturbance. Therefore, the condition is without compensation. Option A, B, and C are incorrect.

13) A
- the normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Pco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is decreased and the Pco2 is elevated. Option B identifies normal values. Option C identifies an alkalosis condition. Option D identifies respiratory alkalosis.

14) B
- the normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. In respiratory condition, an opposite effect will be seen between the pH and the Pco2. In this situation, the pH is at high end of the normal value and Pco2 is low. In alkalosis condition, the pH is elevated. Therefore, the values identified in the question indicate a respiratory alkalosis. Compensation occurs when the pH returns to a normal value. Because the pH is in normal range at the high end, compensation has occurred.

15) D
- the normal activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) varies between 20 and 36 seconds, depending on the type of activator used in testing. The therapeutic dose of heparin for treatment of deep vein thrombosis is to keep the aPTT between 1.5 to 2.5 times normal. Thus, the client's aPTT is within the therapeutic range, and the dose should remain unchanged.


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NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 6-10)

NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability

6. A nurse is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The nurse understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?

a) prolonged bed rest
b) renal insufficiency
c) hyperparathroidism
d) excessive ingestion of vitamin D

7. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client?

a) twitching
b) negative trousseau's sign
c) hypoactive bowel sounds
d) hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

8. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

a) widened T wave
b) prominent U wave
c) prolonged QT interval
d) shortened ST segment

9. A nurse caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the nurse expect to note based on the magnesium level?

a) prominent U waves
b) prolonged PR interval
c) depressed ST segment
d) widened QRS complexes

10. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

a) alcoholism
b) renal insufficiency
c) hypoparathyroidism
d) tumor lysis syndrome





NCLEX Secrets - Level of Cognitive Ability:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

6) A
- the normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. A client with a serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is experiencing hypocalcemia. The excessive ingestion of vitamin D and hyperthyroidism are causative factors associated with hypercalcemia. End-stage renal disease, rather than renal insufficiency, is a cause of hypercalcemia. Prolonged bed rest is a cause of hypocalcemia. Although immobilization initially can cause hypercalcemia, the long-term effect of prolonged bed rest is hypocalcemia.

7) A
- signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety.Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.

8) C
- electrocardiographic changes that occur in a client with hypocalcemia include a prolonged ST or QT interval. A shortened ST segment and a widened T wave occur with hypercalcemia. Prominent U waves occur with hypokalemia.

9) C
- the normal magnesium level is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL. A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL indicates hypomagnesemia. In hypomagnesemia, the nurse would note tall T waves and a depressed ST segment. Options B and D would be noted in a client experiencing hypermagnesemia. Prominent U waves occur with hypokalemia.

10) A
- the normal serum phosphorus level is 2.7 to 4.5 mg/dL. The client is experiencing hypophosphatemia. Causative factors relate to malnutrition or starvation and the use of aluminum hydroxide-based or magnesium-based antacids. Malnutrition is associated with alcoholism. Hypoparathyroidism, tumor lysis syndrome, and renal insufficiency are causative factors of hyperphosphatemia.


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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test - Level of Cognitive Ability (Analysis 1-5)

1. A nurse is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The nurse reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

a) has renal failure
b) requires nasogastric suction
c) has a history of Addison's disease
d) is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic


2. A nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

a) U waves
b) absent P waves
c) elevated T waves
d) elevated ST segment

3. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level?

a) the client with colitis
b) the client with Cushing's syndrome
c) the client who has been overusing laxatives
d) the client who has sustained a traumatic burn

4. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

a) ST depression
b) inverted T wave
c) prominent U wave
d) tall peaked T waves

5. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of 130 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of sodium value at this level?

a) the client with renal failure
b) the client who is taking diuretics
c) the client with hyperaldosteronism
d) the client who is taking corticosteroids



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

1) B
 - potassium-rich gastrointestinal fluids are lost through gastrointestinal suction, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia. The client with renal failure or Addison's disease and the client taking a potassium-sparing diuretic are at risk for hyperkalemia.

2) A
- a serum potassium level lower than 3.5 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. Potassium deficit is a common electrolyte imbalance and is potentially life threatening. Electrocardiographic changes include inverted T waves, ST segment depression, and prominent U waves. Absent P waves are not a characteristic of hypokalemia.

3) D
- a serum potassium level higher that 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Clients who experience cellular shifting of potassium in the early stage of massive cell destruction such as trauma, burns, sepsis, or metabolic or respiratory acidosis, are at risk for hyperkalemia. The client with Cushing's syndrome or colitis and the client who has been overusing laxatives are at risk for hypokalemia.

4) D
- a serum potassium level higher that 5.1 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Electrocardiogram changes include flat P waves, prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and tall peaked T waves.

5) B
- hyponatremia is evidenced by a serum sodium level lower than 135 mEq/L. Hyponatremia can occur in the client taking diuretics. The client taking corticosteroids and the client with renal failure or hypoaldosteronism are at risk for hypernatremia.


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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test: Fundamentals of Nursing Concepts Practice Test (11-20)

11. A client is receiving 125 ml/hr of continuous IV fluid therapy. The nurse examines the venipuncture site and finds it red and swollen. Which of the following interventions would the nurse perform first?A. slow the infusion to 10 ml/hr
B. discontinue the infusion
C. place cold towels on the site
D. call the physician


13. After surgery, a client is being discharged with acetaminophen and codeine tablets, 30 mg. for pain. During the client's discharge preparations, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. avoid driving a car while taking the medication
B. decrease your fluid intake to two glasses a day
C. take the medication on an empty stomach
D. watch for fine motor tremors

14. Which action is essential when the nurse provides a continuous enteral feeding?
A. elevate the head of the bed
B. position the client on his left side
C. warm the formula before administering it
D. attach the feeding bag to the current tubing

15. Which of these foods should the nurse include to promote healing?

A. fresh orange slices
B. ground-beef patties
C. steamed broccoli
D. ice cream

16. A nurse is instructing an Indian-American client on collecting sputum specimen. The nurse observes that the client continuously stares at the floor during instructional sessions. The nurse interprets this behavior as:

A. rude
B. lack of interest
C. embarrassment
D. indicative that the client is paying close attention

17. A client in the telemetry unit refuses to take a prescribed medication. The nurse threatens the clients and tells the client that if the medication is not taken orally, then restraints will be applied and the medication will be given by injection. This statement by the nurse constitutes which legal case?

A. invasion of privacy
B. negligence
C. assault
D. battery

18. The nurse would assign highest priority to which of the following clients?

A. a client with scheduled for transesophageal echocardiography at 9:00 A.M.
B. a client with chest pain who states that he just had bowel movement in the toilet
C. a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus scheduled for discharge to home
D. a client complaining of muscle aches, headache, and malaise

19. A client's serum sodium level is 152 mEq/L. Which of the following food items does the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

A. low-fat yogurt
B. broccoli
C. processed oat-cereals
D. brussel sprout

20. A client had undergone appendectomy. He is on clear liquid diet initially. Which of the following items may be allowed to be taken by the client? Select all that apply:

A. broth
B. gelatin
C. pudding
D. pureed vegetables
E. coffee
F. vegetable juice



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

11) B
- The signs and symptoms in the situation indicate extravasation; the IV device should be discontinued immediately and warm, not cold towels applied to the site

13) A
- Codeine can cause drowsiness. The client should avoid driving when taking this medication to prevent accident. The medication should be taken with food to prevent nausea and vomiting. Codeine can also cause dizziness but not fine motor tremors. Fluid restriction may cause constipation.

14) A
- elevating the head of the bed during an enteral feeding prevents aspiration and facilitates flow of the formula into the intestines. The client may be placed on the right side to prevent aspiration. Enteral feedings are given at room temperature to minimize GI distress. The enteral tubing should be changed every 24 hours to limit microbial growth.

15) B
- proteins, like meat promote repair of tissue breakdown from the pressure ulcers. Meat is more complete source of protein as compared with ice cream. Oranges and broccoli supply vitamin C but not protein.

16) D
in this culture, eye contact is considered as a sign of disrespect. This behavior indicates that the client is paying close attention to the speaker

17) C
- Rationale: An assault occurs when a person puts another person in fear of a harmful of offensive contact.
Battery is actual contact with one's body. Negligence involves actions below standards of care. Invasion of privacy occurs with unreasonable intrusion into the individual's private affairs.

18. B
- the client with chest pain after having a bowel movement may be experiencing myocardial infarction and therefore, is given highest priority . ABC is a priority.

19) C
- the client is having hpernatremia. The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L. The client should avoid foods high in sodium like processed foods. Low-fat yogurt, broccoli and brussel sprout are good food sources of phosphorus.

20) A, B, C, E
- these are foods are relatively transparent to light and are clear and liquid at room and body temperature. Other foods that may be included in clear liquid diet are water, bouillion, carbonated beverages, hard candy, lemonade, popsicles and tea.


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 Compilation of NCLEX Practice Questions

NCLEX Practice Exam/Test: Fundamentals of Nursing Concepts Practice Test (1-10)

1. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action when implementing standard precautions?

A. Consider all body substances potentially infectious
B. wear gloves whenever in contact with patient
C wear gown and gloves when caring for a client in droplet precaution
D. place a body substance isolation sign on the client's door



2. Which of the following clients would qualify for hospice care?

A. a client with metastatic cancer
B. a client with left-side after a stroke
C. a client who had coronary artery bypass surgery 1 week ago
D. a client who is undergoing treatment for heroin addiction

3. For a hospitalized client, which statement reflects appropriate documentation in the client's medical record?

A. "client had a good day"
B. "seems to be mad at the physician"
C. "small pressure ulcer noted at the lower back"
D. "skin moist and cool"

4. The nurse will administer the client's 9 A.M. medications. The client is away from his room for ultrasound of the liver. Which nursing action is appropriate ?

A. have the client skip that dose of medication
B. ask the client's relatives to keep the medications for the client until he returns
C. lock the medications in the medicine preparation area until the client returns
D. leave the medications on the drawer of the client's bedside table

5. The nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for pain management. Which statement about PCA is true?

A. the PCA pump cant' infuse opioids continuously
B. pain relief is initiated by the client as needed
C. no complications related to opioid delivery by the pump exist
D. the nurse prescribes the dosage of opioid for delivery

6. Which assessment sequence should the nurse follow when examining abdomen?

A. Inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation
B. auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
C. inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
D. auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

7. Which of the following instructions given to an elderly client who had undergone total hip replacement would prevent post-operative constipation?

A. "take metamucil regularly"
B. "walk 50 feet daily"
C. "eat a soft diet"
D. "drink 6 to 8 glasses of water a day"

8. Which action by the nurse is essential when cleaning the area around a Jackson Pratt wound drain?

A. clean from the center, out in a circular motion
B. remove the drain before cleaning the skin
C. clean briskly around the site with alcohol
D. wear sterile gloves and mask

9. An obese client comes to the physician's office for a routine physical examination. The nurse chooses a standard blood pressure cuff to auscultate the client's blood pressure. If the blood pressure cuff is too small for the client, blood pressure reading taken with such cuff may do which of the following?

A. fail to show changes in blood pressure
B. produce a false-high measurement
C. cause sciatic nerve damage
D. produce false-low measurement

10. Before administering a medication through a nasogastric tube (NGT), which action should the nurse take first?

A. instruct the client to cough
B. give the client a sip of water through a straw
C. observe and test the pH of the aspirate
D. inject 10ml of water into the NGT




ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

1) A- standard precautions are based on the concepts that all body substances are potentially infectious. The nurse should wear gloves when contact with body substances is potential, not when in contact with intact skin. Mask should be used as a barrier to prevent transmission of droplet infections. Signs on door are unnecessary for standard precaution.

2) A
hospices provide supportive, palliative care to terminally ill clients and their families

3) D
- documentation should be factual and accurate, what are heard, seen, smelled, or felt. Documentation of ulcer should include exact size and location. Interpretations, conclusions, opinions should not be documented.

4) C
the nurse must put the medicines in the secured area. She should not leave the medications at the bedside. The nurse should not omit doses of medications without physician's order

5) B
- the client pushes a button to self-administer narcotic analgesic. The PCA pump also allows for continuous infusions of the medication. The client may still experience complications of the medication. It is the physician who prescribes the medication order

6) C
- the sequence of inspection, auscultation, percussion and palpation ensures that bowel sounds are not altered or stimulated by percussion and palpation (IAPP)

7) D
- Water is needed to promote peristalsis. Regular use of laxative may create dependence and cause dehydration. A high fiber diet, not soft diet prevents constipation. Walking 50 feet a day may not be enough to increase motility

8) A
- cleaning from the center, out in a circular motion around a wound drain prevents contamination of wound. The skin near the drain is more contaminated. Alcohol is never used to clean around the drain because it is irritating. The nurse should wear sterile gloves to prevent contamination but a mask in not necessary

9) B
- using too small blood pressure cuff produces a false-high measurement because the cuff can't measure brachial artery pressure unless it's excessively inflated

10) C
- NGT placement must be verified before administering a medication to prevent introducing the medication into the airway. Placement may be checked by assessing the pH of gastric contents. The pH should be less than 5.

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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test - Leadership and Management Practice Test





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1. A registered nurse is planning for the client assignment for the day. Which of the following is the most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant?

A. a client requires tap water enemas
B. a client requiring colostomy irrigation
C. a client requiring continuous tube feeding
D. a client with difficulty swallowing food and fluid

2. A registered nurse employed in long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. The RN needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical (vocational) nurse and three nursing assistants on a nursing team. Which of the following clients would the nurse most appropriately assign to LPN

A. a client who requires a 24-hour urine collection
B. an elderly client requiring assistance with bed bad and frequent ambulation
C. a client who requires a fleet and an oil retention enema
D. a client with an abdominal wound that requires irrigation and dressing changes every 3 hours

3. A registered nurse has received the assignment for the day shift. After making initial rounds and checking all the assigned clients, which will the RN plan to care for first?

A. a client who is ambulatory
B. a client who has fever and who is diaphoretic and restless
C. a client scheduled for physical therapy at 1:00 pm
D. a post-operative client who has received pain medications

4. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client rounds, which client would the nurse assess first?

A. a client receiving oxygen via nasal cannula who had difficulty breathing the previous shift
B. a post-operative client for discharge
C. a client scheduled for x-ray
D. a client requiring daily dressing changes



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

1) A
- The nursing assistant can perform enema. Option B, C, and D will be done by the LVN/LPN

2) D
- the LVN can perform more complicated procedures like wound care. Option A, B, and C tasks done by nursing assistants

3) B
- patients with unstable condition should be given highest priority by the nurse. The client who has fever, and who is diaphoretic and restless is with unstable condition

4) A
- the client with problem with airways and whose condition is unstable should be given first priority by the nurse. "ABC" is a priority.


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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test - Ethical and Legal Issues Practice Test





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1. A nurse calls a physician in regard to a new medication order because the dosage prescribed is higher than the recommended dosage. The nurse is unable to locate the physician and the medication is due to be administered. Which of the following actions would the nurse take?

A. hold the medication until the physician can be contacted
B. administer the dosage prescribed
C. administer the recommended dose until the physician can be located
D. contact the nurse supervisor

2. A registered nurse arrives at work and is told to "float" to the ICU for the day because the ICU is understaffed and needs an additional nurse to care for the clients. The nurse has never worked in the ICU. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

A. refuse to float in the ICU
B. call the hospital lawyer
C. call the nursing supervisor
D. report to the ICU and identify tasks that can be safely performed

3. An 87 year-old female is brought to the emergency room for treatment of a fractured arm. On physical assessment, a nurse notes old and new ecchymotic areas on the client's chest and legs. The nurse asks the client how the bruises were sustained. The client although reluctant, tells the nurse in confidence that her son frequently hit her if supper is not ready on time when he arrives home from work. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response?

A. "Oh really, I will discuss the situation with your son."
B. "Do you have any friends who can help you out until you resolve these important issues with your son?"
C. "Lets talk about the ways you can manage your time to prevent this from happening."
D. "This is a legal issue, and I need to let you know that I will need to report."

4. A client is brought to the emergency room by the EMS after being hit by a car. The name of the client is not known. The client has sustained severe head injury and multiple fractures and is unconscious. An emergency craniotomy is required. In regard to informed consent for the surgical procedures, which of the following is the best initial nursing action?

A. call the police to identify the client and locate the family
B. obtain court order for the surgical procedure
C. ask the EMS team to sign the informed consent
D. transport the victim to the OR surgery

5. A nurse who works on the night shift enters the medication room and finds a co-worker with a tourniquet wrapped around the upper arm. The co-worker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is which of the following?

A. call the police
B. call security
C. lock the co-worker in the medication room until help is obtained
D. call the nursing supervisor

6. A nurse hears a client calling for help. The nurse hurries down the hallway to the client's room and found a client lying on the floor. The nurse performs a thorough assessment and assists the client back to bed. The nurse notifies the physician of the incident and completes an incident report. Which of the following would the nurse document on the incident report?

A. the client was found on the floor
B. the client climbed of the side rails
C. the client fell out of bed
D. the client became restless and tried to get out of bed



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE:

1) D
- when a physician's order is inappropriate, the nurse should question/verify the order. When the nurse is unable to contact the physician, he/she should seek the help of the nursing supervisor. This action enables the nurse to perform her other tasks

2) D 
- floating is acceptable and legal practice. The nurse floated to a unit until will be given orientation; be assigned to care for stable patients or those with conditions similar to her training experience.

3) D 
- the presence of old and new signs of injury indicates abuse. This is one of the reporting responsibilities of the nurse. The other choices do not address the issue of abuse

4) D 
- in case of emergency, to save the life of a client, written consent may be waived. Two physicians will signed the consent and the nature of the emergency situation need to be documented.

5) D 
- the nurse should report the situation to the nursing supervisor. Proper channel of communication should be used to deal with legal matters.

6) A 
- documentation should be factual and objective. Avoid opinion, interpretations, and legally-implicating statements.


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NCLEX Practice Exam/Test - Cultural Diversity Practice Test





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1. A nurse in an ambulatory care clinic is performing an admission assessment for an African-American client scheduled for a cataract removal with intraocular lens implant. Which of the following questions would be inappropriate for the nurse to ask on initial assessment?

A. Do you have any difficulty breathing?
B. Do you have a close family relationship?
C. Do you ever experience chest pain?
D. Do you frequently have episodes of headache?

2. A nurse is preparing to deliver a food tray to client whose religion is Jewish. The nurse checks the food on the tray and notes that the client has received roast beef dinner with whole milk as beverage. Which action will the nurse take?

A. deliver the food tray to the client
B. call the dietary department and ask for new meal tray
C. replace the whole milk with fat-free milk
D. ask the dietary department to replace the roast beef with pork

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a Chinese client regarding prescribed dietary modifications. During the teaching sessions, the client continuously turns away from the nurse. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

A. continue with the instructions, verifying client's understanding
B. tell the client about the importance of the instruction for maintenance of health care
C. walk around the client so that the nurse continuously faces the client
D. give the client a dietary booklet and return later to continue with the instructions.

4. A clinic is preparing to examine a Hispanic child who was brought to the clinic by the mother. During assessment of the child, the nurse would avoid which of the following?

A. Asking the mother questions about the child
B. admiring the child
C. taking the child's temperature
D. obtaining an interpreter as necessary


ANSWERS AND RATIONALE:

1) B
- among African-Americans, avoid asking personal questions during initial encounter. It is considered as intrusive.

2) B
- the diet for Jewish people is Kosher diet. Meat and milk combination, pork, and scavenger fishes are prohibited. The appropriate nursing action is to call the dietary department to change the meal tray of the patient

3)  A
- Asian- Americans like Chinese, avoid eye contact with authorities to show respect. The appropriate action by the nurse is to continue giving health teachings and verify client's understanding every now and then

4) B
- Among Hispanic_Americans, admiring a child during initial encounter with a stranger should be avoided because this may afflict the child with the "evil eye" ( the child will get sick)


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