Test for Kidneys (NCLEX 61-65)

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61. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled to begin hemodialysis therapy. As part of general teaching about hemodialysis, the nurse tells the client to expect the typical dialysis schedule to be:

a) 2 to 3 hours treatment 5 days per week
b) 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week
c) 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week
d) 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week

62. A nurse is hemodialyzing a client. The client suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The nurse notes that the client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious. The nurse should take which action?

a) monitor vital signs every half hours for the next 2 hours
b) bolus the client with 500 ml normal saline
c) check the tubing for air and continue dialysis at a slower rate
d) discontinue dialysis and notify the physician

63. A nurse is teaching a hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse tells the client to record which of the following on a daily basis?

a) calorie count
b) activity log
c) pulse, respiratory rate
d) intake and output, weight

64. A nurse is providing home care instructions to a client who has a cystoscopy in the physician's office. The nurse gives the client which instruction?

a) take cold tub baths two or three times a day
b) expect small episodes of bright red bleeding
c) drink increased amounts of fluids
d) try to avoid taking analgesic medications

65. A nurse has taught a client with chronic renal failure about medication therapy used in its treatment. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client states which medication is needed to enhance red blood cell (RBC) production?

a) calcium carbonate (Tums)
b) multivitamins (MVI)
c) ferrous sulfate (Feosol)
d) folic acid (Folvite)






Test for Kidneys
Answers and Rationale

61) D
- The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week. Individual adjustments may be made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, the rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and others. Options A, B, and C do not represent the typical hemodialysis schedule.

62) D
- The signs and symptoms exhibited by the client are compatible with air embolism. If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should stop the dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed. All of the other actions are incorrect.

63) D
- The client monitors his or her own status between dialysis procedures by measuring intake and output and daily weight. These measures will assist the client in preventing fluid volume excess. The other options do not need to be recorded by the client daily.

64) C
- Because clients may be discharged immediately after cystoscopy, clients must understand home care measures. Pink-tinged urine is common, but not bright red bleeding. Increased intake of fluids helps prevent this from occurring. Clients often experience bladder spasm and bladder pain, feelings of bladder fullness and burning, and burning on urination after this procedure. Mild analgesics and warm tub baths are recommended to relieve these discomforts.

65) A
- Calcium carbonate is a calcium salt that is used as a phosphate binder in the client with chronic renal failure. It has nothing to do with the treatment of anemia. Folic acid is a vitamin that is needed for RBC production, and it is usually deficient in the client with chronic renal failure. Iron supplements (ferrous sulfate) are needed to produce adequate hemoglobin. Multivitamins supplement dietary vitamins and minerals but do not specifically enhance RBC production.



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Test for Kidneys (NCLEX 1-7)


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Test for Kidneys (NCLEX 66-70)

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Nursing Management Styles (NCLEX 71-75)

Welcome to Nursing Management Styles. Enjoy answering and I hope that NCLEX Review and Secrets can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck.


71. A student nurse is developing a plan of care for a paranoid client with a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed thought processes. The registered nurse reviews the interventions developed by the student and suggests revising the plan if the student has documented which intervention?

a) sit with the client and hold the client's hand
b) display a nonjudmental attitude
c) use simple and clear language when speaking to the client
d) diffuse angry and hostile verbal attacks with nondefensive stand

72. A benzodiazepine anxiolytic has been prescribed for a client for the management of anxiety, and a student nurse prepares to provide instructions to the client regarding the administration of the medication. The registered nurse who is supervising the student intervenes if the student plans to tell the client which of the following?

a) avoid driving or other activities requiring alertness until the response to the medication
b) do not skip medication doses and do not double up on missed doses
c) double a dose if a dose was missed
d) avoid the use of alcohol while taking the medication

73. A nurse is reviewing the critical paths of the clients on the nursing unit. In performing a variance analysis, which of the following would indicate the need for further action and analysis?

a) clear breath sounds in client with congestive heart failure
b) a postoperative client who develops a cough and a fever
c) the absence of a wound infection in a client who had a coronary artery bypass graft
d) a client with diabetes mellitus demonstrating accurate use of a glucometer following teaching

74. A nurse is told that the nursing model used in the nursing facility is a functional nursing approach. The nurse understands that planning care delivery will be based on which characteristic of this type of nursing model of practice?

a) a task approach methods is used to provide care to clients
b) a single registered nurse (RN) is responsible for providing nursing care to a group of clients
c) managed care concepts and tools are used in providing client care
d) nursing personnel are led by a RN in providing care to a group of clients

75. A nurse manager has implemented a change in the method of documenting nursing care. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is resistant to the change and is not taking an active part in facilitating the process of change. Which of the following would be the best approach in dealing with the LPN?

a) ignore the resistance
b) tell the LPN that the registered nurse will do all of the documentation
c) confront the LPN, and encourage verbalization of feelings regarding the change
d) tell the LPN that she must comply with the change






Nursing Management Styles 
Answers and Rationale

71) A
- When caring for a paranoid client, the nurse must avoid any physical contact. The nurse should ask the client's permission if touch is necessary because touch may be interpreted as a physical or sexual assault. The nurse should use simple and clear language when speaking to the client to prevent misinterpretation and to clarify the nurse's intent and actions. A warm approach is avoided because it can be frightening to a person who needs emotional distance. Anger and hostile verbal attacks are diffused with a nondefensive stand. The anger a paranoid client expresses is often displaced, and when a staff member becomes defensive, anger of both the client and staff member escalates. A nondefensive and nonjudgmental attitude provides an environment in which feelings can be explored more easily.

72) C
- The client should be instructed to take the medication exactly as directed and not to skip or double up on the doses. The client should also be instructed not to increase doses or to abruptly withdraw the medication. Abrupt withdrawal may cause tremors, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal or muscle cramps. The client is also advised to avoid driving or other activities requiring alertness until response to the medication is known and to avoid taking alcohol or other central nervous system depressants concurrently with this medication.

73) B
- Variances are actual deviations or detours from the critical paths. Variances can be positive or negative, avoidable or unavoidable, and can be caused by a variety of things. Positive variance occurs when the client achieves maximum benefit and is discharged earlier than anticipated. Negative variance occurs when untoward events prevent a timely discharge. Variance analysis occurs continually in order to anticipate and recognize negative variance early so that appropriate action can be taken.

74) A
- In functional nursing, a task approach method is used to provide care to clients. Option B exemplifies primary nursing. Option C exemplifies a component of case management. Option D exemplifies team nursing.

75) C
- Confrontation is an important strategy to meet resistance head-on. Face-to-face meetings to confront the subject at hand will allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and subjects, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Option A will not address the problem. Option B might provide a temporary solution to the resistance but will not specifically address the concern. Option D might produce additional resistance.


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Nursing Management Styles (NCLEX 66-70)

Welcome to Nursing Management Styles. Enjoy answering and I hope that NCLEX Review and Secrets can somehow help you in your future examination. Good Luck.

66. A physician wrote an order for wrist restraints to be applied to a client. The nurse instructs the nursing assistant to apply the restraints. When checking the client, which observation would indicate that the nursing assistant performed unsafe care?

a) a safety (hitch) knot was used to secure the restraints
b) restraints were released every 2 hours
c) restraints were applied snugly and tightly
d) the call light was placed within reach of the client's hand

67. A registered nurse assigns a new nursing graduate to care for a client with a diagnosis of active tuberculosis, and the registered nurse explains the use of a particulate respirator to the graduate. Which observation indicates that the new nursing graduate understands how the particulate respirator operates?

a) the nosepiece is readjusted if air is detected escaping around the nose
b) another particulate respirator is obtained if air is escaping around the nose
c) the new nursing graduate states that a fit check is not needed
d) the new nursing graduate states that a fit check is necessary only when putting on the respirator for the first time

68. A registered nurse has instructed a new nursing graduate about the procedure for weaning a client from a ventilator by using a T-piece. The registered nurse determines that the new nursing graduate nurse states which of the following to be part of the procedure?

a) removing the client from the mechanical ventilator for a short period
b) connecting the T-piece to the client's artificial airway
c) providing supplemental oxygen through the T-piece at an Flo2 that is 10% higher than the ventilator setting
d) gradually decreasing the respiratory rate on the ventilator until the client takes over all of the work of breathing

69. A registered nurse is mentoring a new nurse hired to work in the nursing unit. The registered nurse determines that the new nurse is competent to provide safe effective care for a client on a ventilator when the registered nurse notes that the new nurse:

a) has the ventilator routinely assessed by the respiratory therapist
b) realizes that the ventilator readings provide information without human error
c) teaches family members how to reset controls during their visits if necessary
d) establishes a rest pattern before morning care

70. A nursing student develops a plan of care for a client who will be returning from the operating room after a mastoidectomy. The registered nurse reviews the plan of care and instructs the student to revise the plan if which intervention is listed?

a) assess client for pain, dizziness, or nausea
b) keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees
c) instruct the client to lie on the affected side
d) assess for signs of injury to cranial nerve VII





Nursing Management Styles
Answers and Rationale

66) C
- Restraints should never be applied tightly because they could impair the circulation. A safety (hitch) knot may be used on the restraint because it can easily be released in an emergency. Restraints must be released at least every 2 hours (or per agency policy) to inspect the skin for abnormalities and to provide range-of-motion exercises. The call light must always be at the client's reach in case the client needs assistance.

67) A
- Personal protective equipment, called particulate respirators, is required for all health care workers entering a tuberculosis isolation room. When fitted and used properly, these respirators filter droplet nuclei. It is important that no air escapes around the nose while wearing the respirator. The strap needs to be adjusted if air is escaping. It is important to exhale forcefully while placing both hands over the apparatus. It is necessary to perform a fit check each time the nurse uses the mask.

68) D
- The T-piece or Briggs device requires that the client is removed from the mechanical ventilation for a short time, usually beginning with a 5-minute period. The ventilator is disconnected and the T-piece is connected to the client's artificial airway. Supplemental oxygen is provided through the device, often at a FIo2 that is 10% higher than the ventilator setting. Option 4 describes the process of weaning via synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation.

69) A
- Ventilators need to be assessed routinely by the respiratory therapist. Ventilators are machines, and machines can fail. Therefore, option B is not a reasonable option. Family members should not reset ventilator controls. Although option D is considered good nursing practice for the comfort of the client, it is not the priority option.

70) C
- Following mastoidectomy, the nurse should monitor vital signs and inspect the dressing for drainage or bleeding. The nurse should assess for signs of facial nerve injury to cranial nerve VII and assess the client for pain, dizziness, or nausea. The head of the bed should be elevated at least 30 degrees, and the client is instructed to lie on the unaffected side. The client would probably have sutures and an outer ear packing and a bulky dressing, which is removed on approximately the sixth postoperative day.



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Leadership NCLEX Questions (61-65)

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61. A client is scheduled for bronchoscopy, and the registered nurse reviews the plan of care written by a nursing student. The registered nurse discusses revision of the plan with the nursing student if which incorrect intervention was documented?

a) removing any dentures
b) removing contact lenses
c) letting the client eat or drink
d) obtaining a signed informed consent

62. A physician prescribes a chemotherapeutic medication dose that the nurse believes is too high. The nurse calls the physician, but the physician has left the office for the weekend. The nurse appropriately:

a) reschedules the client's chemotherapy until the following week
b) telephones the answering service and confers with the on-call physician
c)  withholds giving the medication until the physician's partner makes rounds the following day
d) checks with the pharmacist, who agrees the dose is too high, and then reduces the dose accordingly

63. A medication nurse is supervising a newly hired nurse who is administering pyridostigmine (Mestinon) orally to a client with myasthenia gravis. Which observation by the medication nurse indicates safe practice by the newly hired nurse before administering this medication?

a) asking the client to take a sips of water
b) asking the client to lie down on her right side
c) asking the client to look up at the ceiling for 30 seconds
d) instructing the client to void before taking the medication

64. A registered nurse (RN) is supervising a licensed practical nurse (LPN) providing care to a client with end-stage heart failure. The client is withdrawn, reluctant to talk, and shows little interest in participating in hygienic care or activities. Which statement by the LPN to the client indicates that the LPN needs instructions in the use of therapeutic communication skills?

a) you are very quiet today
b) what are your feelings right now?
c) why don't you feel like getting up?
d) tell me more about your difficulty with sleeping at night

65. A nurse is observing a nursing assistant care for an older client who had a hip pinned following a fracture 4 days ago. To prevent client injury, the nurse intervenes in the care if the nursing assistant:

a) leave the side rails down
b) ensures that the nightlight is working
c) answers the nurse call signal promptly
d) places the nurse call signal within reach




Leadership NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

 61) C
- The client is not allowed to eat or drink for usually 6 to 8 hours (or as specified by the physician) before the procedure. The client must sign an informed consent, because the procedure is invasive. If the client has any contact lenses, dentures, or other prostheses, they are removed before sedation is administered to the client.

62) B
- If the nurse believes a physician's order to be in error, the nurse must clarify the dosage with the client's physician or the physician's substitute before administering the medication. Checking with the pharmacist can assist the nurse in determining whether the dose ordered is incorrect, but the nurse or pharmacist cannot alter the dose without a revised prescription from a licensed health care provider with prescriptive authority. Withholding the medication until the following day is incorrect. Chemotherapy agents must be administered in the proper combinations or sequence in order to be effective. Rescheduling the client's chemotherapy is also incorrect. Chemotherapy must be administered on a specific schedule for maximum effect with minimum adverse effects. Additionally, only a prescriber can withhold or reschedule chemotherapy.

63) A
- Myasthenia gravis can affect the client's ability to swallow. The primary assessment is to determine the client's ability to swallow. Options B and C are not appropriate. In this situation, there is no reason for the client to lie down to swallow medication or to look up at the ceiling. Additionally, lying down could place the client at risk for aspiration. There is no specific reason for the client to void before taking medication.

64) C
- When a "why" question is made to the client, an explanation for feelings and behaviors is requested, and the client may not know the reason. Requesting an explanation is a nontherapeutic communication technique. In option A, the LPN is using the therapeutic communication technique of acknowledging the client's behavior. In option B, the LPN is encouraging identification of emotions or feelings. In option D, the LPN is using the therapeutic communication technique of exploring, which is asking the client to describe something in more detail or to discuss it more fully.

65) A
- Safe nursing actions intended to prevent injury to the client include keeping the side rails up, bed in low position, and providing a call bell that is within the client's reach. Responding promptly to the client's use of the call bell minimizes the chance that the client will try to get up alone, which could result in a fall. Nightlights are built into the lighting systems of most facilities, and these bulbs should be routinely checked to see that they are functional.


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Leadership NCLEX Questions (1-5)


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Leadership NCLEX Questions (56-60)

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56. A nurse receives a telephone calls from emergency department and is told that a client in leg traction will be admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse prepares for the arrival of the client and asks the nursing assistant to obtain which item that will be essential for helping the client move in bed while in leg traction?

a) a foot board
b) extra pillows
c) a bed trapeze
d) an electric bed

57. A registered nurse is observing a nursing student auscultate the breath sounds of a client. The registered nurse intervenes if the nursing student performs which incorrect action?

a) use the bell of the stethoscope
b) asks the client to sit straight up
c) places the stethoscope directly on the client's skin
d) has the client breathe slowly and deeply through the mouth

58. A nurse has oriented a new employee to basic procedures for continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. The nurse would intervene of the new employee did which of the following while initiating cardiac monitoring on a client?

a)  clipped small areas of hair under the area planned for electrode placement
b) stated the need to change the electrodes and inspect the skin every 24 hours
c) stated the need to use hypoallergenic electrodes for clients who are sensitive
d) cleansed the skin with Betadine (povidone-iodine) before applying the electrodes

59. A client has an order for seizure precautions, and a nursing student develops a plan of care for the client. The registered nurse reviews the plan of care with the student and will instruct the student to remove which of hte following interventions?

a)  keep all the lights on in the room at night
b) assist the client to ambulate in the hallway
c) monitor the client closely while the client is showering
d) push the lock-out button on the electric bed to keep the bed in the lowest position

60. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is to be admitted to a medical-surgical unit. When planning a bed assignment, the nurse:

 a) plans to transfer the client to the intensive care unit
b) places the client in a private, well-ventilated room
c) assigns the client to a double room because intravenous antibiotics will be administered
d) assigns the client to a double room and places a "strict handwashing" sign outside the door






Leadership NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

56) C
- A trapeze is essential to allow the client to lift straight up while being moved so that the amount of pull exerted on the limb in traction is not altered. A foot board and extra pillows do not facilitate moving. Either an electric bed or a manual bed can be used for traction, but this does not specifically assist the client with moving in bed.

57) A
- The bell of the stethoscope is not used to auscultate breath sounds. The client ideally should sit up and breathe slowly and deeply through the mouth. The diaphragm of the stethoscope, which is warmed before use, is placed directly on the client's skin, not over a gown or clothing.

58) D
- The skin is cleansed with soap and water (not Betadine), denatured with alcohol, and allowed to air-dry before electrodes are applied. The other three options are correct.

59) A
- A quiet, restful environment is provided as part of seizure precautions. This includes undisturbed times for sleep, while using a nightlight for safety. The client should be accompanied during activities such as bathing and walking, so that assistance is readily available and injury is minimized if a seizure begins. The bed is maintained in low position for safety.

60) B
- According to category-specific (respiratory) isolation precautions, a client with TB requires a private room. The room needs to be well-ventilated and should have at least six exchanges of fresh air per hour and should be ventilated to the outside if possible. Therefore, option 2 is the only correct option.



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Leadership NCLEX Questions (1-5)


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Leadership NCLEX Questions (51-55)

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51. A cooling blanket is prescribed for a child with a fever. A nurse caring for the child has never used this type of equipment, and the charge nurse provides instructions and observes the nurse using the cooling blanket. The charge nurse intervenes if the nurse:

a) keeps the child uncovered to assist in reducing the fever
b) places the cooling blanket on the bed and covers the blanket with a sheet
c) keeps the child dry while on the cooling blanket to reduce the risk of frostbite
d) checks the skin condition of the child before, during, and after the use of the cooling blanket

52. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to identify situations that indicate a secondary level of prevention in health care. Which situation, if identified by the student, would indicate the need for further study of the levels of prevention?

a)  teaching s stroke client how to use a walker
b) screening for hypertension in a community group
c) screening for hyperlipidemia in a community group
d) encouraging a woman who is more than 40 years old to obtain periodic mammograms

53. A charge nurse is supervising a new registered nurse (RN) who is providing care to a client with end-stage heart failure. The client is withdrawn and reluctant to talk, and she shows little interest in participating in hygienic care or activities. Which statement, if made by the new RN to the client, indicates that the new RN requires further teaching regarding the use of therapeutic communication techniques?

a) what are your feelings right now?
b) why don't you feel like getting up for your bath?
c) these dreams you mentioned, what are they like?
d) many clients with end-stage heart failure fear death

54. A nurse is observing a nursing assistant talking to a client who is hearing impaired. The nurse would intervene if which of the following is performed by the nursing assistant during communication with the client?

a)  the nursing assistant is speaking in a normal tone
b) the nursing assistant is speaking clearly to the client
c) the nursing assistant is facing the client when speaking
d) the nursing assistant is speaking directly into the impaired ear

55. A charge nurse reviews the plan of care formulated by a new nursing graduate for a child returning from the operating room after a tonsillectomy. The charge nurse assists the new nursing graduate with changing the plan if which incorrect intervention is documented?

a) suction whenever necessary
b) offer clear, cool liquids when awake
c) monitor for bleeding from the surgical site
d) eliminate milk or milk products from the diet






Leadership NCLEX Questions
Answers and Rationale

51) A
- While on a cooling blanket, the child should be covered lightly to maintain privacy and reduce shivering. Options B, C, and D are important interventions to prevent shivering, frostbite, and skin breakdown.

52) A
- Secondary prevention focuses on the early diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease. Tertiary prevention is represented by rehabilitation services. Options B, C, and D identify screening procedures. Option A identifies a rehabilitative service.

53) B
- When the nurse asks a "why" question of the client, the nurse is requesting an explanation for feelings and behaviors when the client may not know the reason. Requesting an explanation is a nontherapeutic communication technique. In option A, the nurse is encouraging the verbalization of emotions or feelings, which is a therapeutic communication technique. In option C, the nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of exploring, which involves asking the client to describe something in more detail or to discuss it more fully. In option D, the nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of giving information. Identifying the common fear of death among clients with end-stage heart failure may encourage the client to voice concerns.

54) D
- When communicating with a hearing-impaired client, the nurse should speak in a normal tone to the client and should not shout. The nurse should talk directly to the client while facing the client, and he or she should speak clearly. If the client does not seem to understand what is being said, the nurse should express the statement differently. Moving closer to the client and toward the better ear may facilitate communication, but the nurse needs to avoid talking directly into the impaired ear.

55) A
- After tonsillectomy, suction equipment should be available, but suctioning is not performed unless there is an airway obstruction. Clear, cool liquids are encouraged. Milk and milk products are avoided initially because they coat the throat; this causes the child to clear the throat, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Option C is an important intervention after any type of surgery.



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NCLEX Pharmacology Practice Questions (96-100)

Welcome to NCLEX Pharmacology Practice Questions. Enjoy answering and I hope that NCLEX Review and Secrets can somehow help you in your future examination. 

Good Luck.


96. A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "I stopped taking my chlorpromazine (Thorazine) because of the way it made me feel." Which side effect is the nurse likely to note during further assessment of the client's complaint?

a) drowsiness
b) nervousness
c) hard tremors
d) increased urination

97. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a skin infection who is receiving tobramycin sulfate (Nebcin) intravenously every 8 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction related to the medication?

a) a total bilirubin of 0.5 mg/dL
b) a sedimentation rate of 15 mm/hr
c) a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 30 mg/dL
d) a white blood cell count (WBC) of 6000 cells/mm3

98. A client has been taking an anti-hypertensive for approximately 2 months. A home care nurse monitoring  the effects of therapy determines that drug tolerance has developed if which of the following are noted in the client?

a) decrease in weight
b) output greater than intake
c) decrease in blood pressure
d) gradual rise in blood pressure

99. A nurse has an order to administer hydroxyzine (Vistaril) to a client by the intramuscular route. Before administering the medication, the nurse tells the client that:

a)  excessive salivation is a side effect
b) there will be some pain at the injection site
c) there will be relief from nausea within 5 minutes
d) the client will have increased alertness for about 2 hours

100. A nurse is preparing to administering diazepam (Valium) by the intravenous (IV) route to a client who is having a seizure. The nurse plans to:

a) administer the prescribed dose over at least 60 minutes
b) dilute the prescribed dose in 50 ml of 5% dextrose in water
c) administer the prescribed by IV push directly into the vein
d) mix the prescribed dose into the existing IV of 5% dextrose in normal saline






NCLEX Pharmacology Practice Questions
Answers and Rationale

96) A
- Side effects of chlorpromazine can include hypotension, dizziness and fainting especially with parenteral use, drowsiness, blurred vision, dry mouth, lethargy, constipation or diarrhea, nasal congestion, peripheral edema, and urinary retention. Options B, C, and D are not side effects of chlorpromazine.

97) C
- Adverse reactions or toxic effects of tobramycin sulfate include nephrotoxicity as evidenced by an increased BUN and serum creatinine; irreversible ototoxicity as evidenced by tinnitus, dizziness, ringing or roaring in the ears, and reduced hearing; and neurotoxicity as evidenced by headaches, dizziness, lethargy, tremors, and visual disturbances. A normal WBC is 4500 to 11,000 cells/mm3. The normal sedimentation rate is 0 to 30 mm/hour. The normal total bilirubin level is less than 1.5 mg/dL. The normal BUN is 5 to 20 mg/dL.

98) D
- Drug tolerance can develop in a client taking an antihypertensive, which is evident by rising blood pressure levels. The physician should be notified, who may then increase the medication dosage or add a diuretic to the medication regimen. The client is also at risk of developing fluid retention, which would be manifested as dependent edema, intake greater than output, and an increase in weight. This would also warrant adding a diuretic to the course of therapy.

99) B
- Hydroxyzine is an antiemetic and sedative/hypnotic that may be used in conjunction with opioid analgesics for added effect. The injection can be extremely painful. Medications administered by the intramuscular route generally take 20 to 30 minutes to become effective. Hydroxyzine causes dry mouth and drowsiness as side effects.

100) C
- Intravenous diazepam is given by IV push directly into a large vein (reduces the risk of thrombophlebitis), at a rate no greater than 1 mg per minute. It should not be mixed with other medications or solutions and can be diluted only with normal saline.


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NCLEX Pharmacology Practice Questions (1-5)


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NCLEX Pharmacology Practice Questions (101-105)

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