Test Prep for Nursing Exam about Obstetric Nursing (1-5)


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Situation: Julia, primagravida is brought to the labor room with the following PE findings: Cervical dilation 8cm, fully effaced +1, AOG: 39-40 weeks.

1. When is the first stage of labor considered to be achieved?

a) presenting part is at station +1
b) cervix is 10 cm dilated
c) uterine contractions occur every 2-3 min. interval
d) cervix is gully effaced

2. Upon admission to the labor room, which of the following is not a routine procedure considering her cervical dilation

a) mini prep. of the perineal area
b) keep on NPO
c) monitor vital signs and FHT
d) cleansing enema

3. Which of the following observation requires the nurse to refer stat to the obstetricians?

a) frequent urination
b) blood-streak mucus in the vaginal discharge
c) sudden gush of amniotic fluid from the vagina
d) FHT is 110 during uterine contractions but returns to 130 after 10 seconds following contract

4. Which of the following signs indicate that delivery is near?

1. Julie verbalized her desire to defecate
2. uterine contractions increased in frequency duration and intensity
3. the perineum is bulging
4. bloody show is increased

a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,2,4

5. After the delivery of the baby, which of the following indicate placental separation?

1. protrusion of three or more inches of the umbilical cord
2. gradual descent of the uterus further into the pelvis
3. uterus becomes more firm and rounded
4. sudden spurt of blood from the vagina

a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,3


ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

1) B
- First Stage/Cervical Stage - the period from onset of true labor contractions until full cervical dilation and effacement is achieved. The most important events during this time are cervical dilatation and effacement.
  • Cervical Effacement is the shortening of the cervical canal from a length of about 1 to 2 cm until it is paper thin. In primiparas, dilatation begins when cervix is completely effaced. In multiparas, dilatation and effacement takes place at the same time. Effacement is expressed in percentage.
  • Cervical dilatation refers to the enlargement or widening of cervical os. The cervix is completely dilated when its diameter is already 10 cm
Second Stage/Expulsive Stage - the stage from full cervical dilatation until the birth of the baby. The main event of this period is the birth of the baby.

Third Stage/Placental Stage - the period from delivery of the baby to the expulsion of placenta. The main event in this period is the delivery of the placenta

Fourth Stage/Immediate Postpartum Period - the period from delivery of placenta until the condition of the woman has stabilized.

2) D
- Enema - is not a routine procedure in the preparation of woman in labor. Commonly used enemas are tap water enema, fleet enema and prepacked disposable type enema. Soap suds enema is not recommended because they have been associated with several complications. Suppositories are also included.

Enema is a procedure of emptying the colon of fecal matter to:
prevent infection - expulsion of feces during the second stage predispose mother and infant infection
facilitate descent of fetus
stimulate uterine contractions

Contraindication to Enema
  • not given during active phase
  • vaginal bleeding
  • ruptured bag of water
  • abnormal fetal presentation and position
  • fetus not yet engaged
  • premature labor because of the danger of cord prolapse
  • abnormal fetal heart rate pattern
3) C
- when the bag of water has ruptured, the nurse should call the physician. Remember, the first action to take when the bag of water has ruptured is to check the FHT as the danger at this time is cord prolapse and compression.

The abnormal signs that should be reported to the physician are:
  1. Signs of fetal distress (tachycardia, bradycardia)
  2. Red stained amniotic fluid (abruptio placenta)
  3. cord prolapse
  4. Maternal tachy cardia, hypertension and hypotension (PIH)
  5. Pallor, cold clammy skin
  6. Elevated temperature, foul smelling vaginal discharge (chrioamnionitis)
  7. bleeding
Blood streaked mucus is show and it is a normal signs of labor. It is normal for a woman to have frequency of urination. It is expected for the FHT to decrease during uterine contraction. This is an effect of fetal head compression when the uterus contracts.

4) A
- all signs that delivery is near. The desire to defecate is due to the stimulation of the sacral nerves as the fecal head presses against the sacrum. Uterine contractions reach its maximum intensity during the transition and second stage of labor. The bulging of perineum is due to the fetal pushing behind it. Show is increased as the remaining operculum is dislodged by the complete dilatation of the cervix.

5) D
- the signs of placental separation usually appear within 5 minutes after baby's birth:
  • Calkin's Sign - usually the first sign of placental separation
  • the uterus becomes firm and globular rising to the level of umbilicus
  • sudden gush of blood from the vagina
  • lengthening of the cord

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Psychotic Disorder Practice Exam/Test (33-43)





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Situation: H., age 40, is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. She claims that before this drastic change in behavior, he became withdrawn, forgetful, and inattentive and had frequent mood swings. During the initial interview, H. appears suspicious. His speech, which is only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions of possession by the devil. He claims that the devil told him that people around him are trying to destroy him and that he should trust no one. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia and admits the patient to the psychiatric unit.

33. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:

a) disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly
b) severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity
c) multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others
d) auditory and visual hallucinations

34. The nursing assessment of H. should include careful observation of his:

a) thinking, perceiving, and decision-making skills
b) verbal and nonverbal communication processes
c) affect and behavior
d) psychomotor activity

35. The patient's thought content can be evaluated on the basis of which assessment area?

a) presence or absence of delusions
b) unbiased information from the parent's psychiatric history
c) degree of orientation to person, place and time
d) ability to think abstractly

36. Nursing care for psychotic patient must be based on valid psychiatric and nursing theories. The nurse's interpersonal communication with the patient ans specific nursing interventions must be:

a) flexible enough for the nurse to adjust the nursing care plan as the situation warrants
b) clearly identified, with boundaries and specifically defined roles
c) warm and nonthreatening
d) centered on clearly defined limits and expression of empathy

37. After 2 days on the unit, H. continues to refuse to eat any hospital meals. He has been observed drinking soda and juices bought from a vending machine in the hospital lobby. Which approach is best at this time?

a) have staff members eat meals with H., encouraging him to eat and demonstrating that the food is not poisoned
b) set firm limits with H., restricting his access to vending machine items until he begins to eat at least part of his meals
c) express concern to H. about his refusal to eat but allow him to control what and when he eats while continuing to observe and monitor him
d) ignore H.'s refusal to eat and recognize that he will eat when he is hungry

38. Although H. refuses to eat, he continues to take his medication. Considering his suspicious behavior and delusions, what is the best way to administer his medication?

a) administer all medications parenterally to ensure adequate dosage
b) administer medication only in liquid form to eliminate the possibility of the patient not swallowing his tablets
c) administer a combination of liquid and tablets to ensure that the patient is getting at least some medication
d) administer the medication in the same form each time

39. The nurse observes H. pacing in his room. He is alone but talking in an angry tone. When asked what he was experiencing, he replies, " The devil is yelling in my ear. He says people here want to hurt me." The nurse's best response is:

a) can you tell me more about what the devil is saying to you?
b) how do you feel when the devil says such things to you?
c) I don't hear any voice, H. are you afraid right now?
d) H., the devil cannot talk to you

40. H. has been hearing voices for many years. An approach that has proven effective is for the hallucinating patient to:

a) practice saying "Go away" or "Stop" when he hears voices
b) take an as-needed dose of his psychotropic medication whenever he hears voices
c) sing loudly to drown out voices and to distract himself
d) go to his room until the voices go away

41. H. requests that his room be changed. He states that his roommate is homosexual and has been making advances to him. He wants to be in a private room. How should the nurse reply?

a) remind H. that he is in a hospital and not a hotel and tell him that patients are assigned to rooms on the basis of need
b) tell H. that his request will be discussed that morning and if a room is available he will be moved
c) inform H. that his roommate is not homosexual and that he should get to know him better
d) ask H. if he physically attracted to his roommate

42. Physical activity is an important part of the schizophrenic patient's treatment plan. Assuming H. is capable of the following activities, which one is most appropriate for him?

a) taking a daily brisk walk with a staff member
b) playing a basketball game
c) participating in touch football
d) shooting basketballs with another patient and a staff member

43. Plans are being made for H.'s discharge. His wife expresses concern over whether her husband will continue to take his prescribed medication. The nurse should inform her that:

a) her concern is valid but H. is an adult and has the right to make his own decisions
b) she can easily mix the medication in H.'s food if he stops taking it
c) H. can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks
d) H. knows that he must take his medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.




ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

33) A
- Rationale: Schizophrenia can best be described as one of a group of psychotic reactions characterized by disturbances in an individual's relationship with people and an inability to communicate and think clearly. Schizophrenic thoughts, feelings, and behavior are commonly evidenced by withdrawal, fluctuating moods, disordered thinking, and regressive tendencies. Severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity are typical of bipolar disorder. Multiple personality, which is sometimes confused with schizophrenia, is a dissociative personality disorder, not a psychotic illness. many schizophrenic patients have auditory, not visual, hallucinations. Visual hallucinations are more common in organic or toxic disorders.

34) A
- Rationale: the nursing assessment of a psychotic patient requires careful inquiry about and observation of his thinking, perceiving, symbolizing, and decision-making skills and abilities. Assessment of such a patient typically reveals alterations in thought content and process, perception, affect, and psychomotor behavior, changes in personality, coping, and sense of self, lack of self-motivation, presence of psychosocial stressors, and degeneration of adaptive functioning. Although assessing the patient's communication processes, affect, behavior, and psychomotor activity would reveal important information about the patient's condition, the nurse should concentrate on determining whether the patient is hallucinating by assessing his thought processes and decision-making ability.

35) A
- Rationale: because delusions constitute the major disturbance in thought content, the nurse should base her assessment on their presence or absence. Although patients may report delusions spontaneously, specific questioning usually is required. Clues suggesting the presence of delusions are evasiveness, suspicion, and other indications of sensitivity to interview questions. The nurse cannot effectively evaluate the patient's thought content from his history. A patient can be oriented to person, place, and time yet still have delusions. Abstract thinking, the ability to infer beyond the literal and concrete meaning of words, reflects the patient's type of thinking, not its content.

36) A
- Rationale: a flexible care plan is needed for any patient who behaves in a suspicious, withdrawn, or regressed way or who has thought disorder. Because such a patient communicates at different levels and is in control of himself at various times, the nurse must be able to adjust the nursing care as the situation warrants. The nurse's role should be clear, however, the boundaries or limits of her role should be flexible enough to meet patient needs. Because a schizophrenic patient fears closeness and affection, a warm approach may be too threatening at this time. Expressing empathy is important, but centering interventions on clearly defined limits is impossible because the patient's situation can change without warning.

37) C
- Rationale: the nurse must avoid a power struggle with H. about his eating habits to prevent any further escalation of paranoia. The patient should be allowed to eat what he chooses as long as no coexisting medical problem, such as diabetes or a compromised fluid and electrolyte status, is present. However, the nurse should monitor the patient's physical status closely. As H. begins to trust the environment and those in it and his psychotic symptoms subside with medication, he will begin to eat. H.'s delusions about food poisoning probably will not be corrected by having staf members eat with him or by setting firm limits. Theses activities may heighten his suspicion and augment his paranoid behavior. The nurse should not ignore H.'s behavior or assume that he will eat eventually, doing so could place the patient at risk for dehydration and malnutrition.

38) D
- Rationale: paranoid patients are hypersensitive to changes in routines and established patients. Consistency on the part of the nurse and other staff members fosters trust and security. Medication should be administered in the same form each time -- for example, the same number of tablets with the same type of juice. Parenteral routes are generally used only when the patient refuses oral medication or is extremely agitated. Liquid psychotropic agents can be distasteful but may be ordered if the nurse suspects that the patient is not swallowing his tablets. The nurse should not give the patient a combination of liquid and tablets because it may confuse him.

39) C
- Rationale: when dealing with hallucinating patient, the nurse should assess the patient's needs and reflect reality by telling him that she does not hear or share his perception. Because hallucinations are generally projections of the patient's own unconscious thoughts and feelings, the nurse should not deny the patient's experience. However, asking about the voices in a way that implies the nurse agrees with their reality is nontherapeutic. Telling H. that the devil cannot talk to him is confrontational and judgmental.

40) A
- Rationale: researchers have found that the most patients can learn to control bothersome hallucinations by telling the voices to go away or stop. Since H. has been hearing voices for many years, this approach would be appropriate for him. Taking an as-needed dose of psychotic medication whenever he hears voices may lead to overmedication and put him at risk for adverse effects, such as extrapyramidal symptoms. Because it is unlikely that H. will become totally free of the voices, he must learn to deal with the hallucinations without relying on medication. Although distraction is helpful, singing loudly may upset other patients and will be socially unacceptable after the patient is discharged. Hallucinations are most bothersome when it is quiet and the patient is alone, so going to his room would increase rather than decrease the hallucinations.

41) B
- Rationale: telling H. that his request for a room change will be discussed with other team members is an honest and factual response. Paranoid patients are commonly disturbed by doubts about gender identity, which is expressed as beliefs that others think they are homosexual or that others are making homosexual advances to them. A change of room would be appropriate if possible. Responding by telling the patient that he is not in a hotel would be inappropriate and only serve to alienate him from the staff. Attempting to dissuade the patient from his beliefs by telling him that his roommate is not homosexual or confronting him about his possible attraction to his roommate would further increase his anxiety.

42) A
- Rationale: the patient should encouraged to participate in noncompetitive and nonthreatening physical activity. A brisk walk with a staff member best meets H.'s activity needs at this time. Activities such as basketball and touch football should be avoided because they require the patient to have physical contact with others, particularly other men. Since H. has already expressed some homosexual concerns, these activities would be threatening to him.

43) C
- Rationale: medications such as fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate), fluphenazine enanthate (Prolixin enanthate), and haloperidol decanoate (haldol decanoate) are long-acting psychotropic drugs that are given by depot injection every 1 to 4 weeks. These agents are especially useful for noncompliant patients because they are not given daily and their effect can be monitored when the patient receives his injection at the outpatient clinic. This arrangement also puts less stress on family members by alleviating the burden of having to monitor the patient's compliance with the medication regimen. A patient has the right to refuse medication, but this issue is not the focus of discussion at this time. Medication should never be hidden in food or drink to trick the patient into taking it. Besides destroying the patient's trust, it places the patient at risk for overmedication or undemedication because the amount administered is difficult to determine. Assuming that the patient knows he must take his medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations is unrealistic; many schizophrenic patients are noncompliant and require close monitoring by family members.


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Online Nursing Practice Test/Exam about Endocrine (31-35)

Situation: Miss Eleanor is a 25 year old woman who is being treated in the endocrine clinic for adult-onset Myxedema.

31. While taking a nursing history, the nurse should expect Miss Eleanor to assess:

a) facial puffiness
b) intolerance to heat
c) exopthalmus
d) heart palpitations

32. The physician has ordered serum thyroxine (T4) concentration and serum cholesterol test. Which finding should the nurse expect?

a) decreased serum T4 and decreased serum cholesterol
b) decreased serum T4 and increased serum cholesterol
c) increased serum T4 and increased serum cholesterol
d) increased serum T4 and increased serum cholesterol

33. Which of the following manifestations does the nurse expect in a client with myxedema?
a) increased heart rate
b) edema
c) weight loss
d) intolerance to heat

34. Which of the following are most important to monitor in a client who had undergone total thyroidectomy?

a) pulse and temperature
b) serum electrolyte levels
c) weight and food intake
d) hoarseness of the voice and ability to swallow

35. Which of the following should be included when giving health teachings to a client with hyperthyroidism.

a) wear long-sleeved clothing
b) use artificial tears to the eyes as necessary
c) increase fibers in the diet
d) take medications with milk



ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

31) A
- Hypothyroidism
is due to absence or deficiency in thyroid hormone that causes a decline in the metabolic rate. It is classified according to the time or life in which it occurs:
  • Cretinism - hypothyroidism in infants and young children
  • Hypothyroidism without myxedema - mild degree of thyroid failure in older children and adult
  • Hypothyroidism with myxedema - severe degree of thyroid failure or hypothyroidism in adults
Manifestations of hypothyroidism are associated with the slowing of the metabolic rate and include:
  • Patient's with myxedema exhibits nonpitting edema in connective tissues all over the body, including the face which appears puffy and the tongue which is enlarged. The edema is due to accumulation of mucoprotein and water retention.
  • Goiter - enlargement of the thyroid gland may or may not be present. Goiter occurs from excessive stimulation of TSH from the pituitary because of continuous deficient or lack thyroxine. Hypothyroidism caused by lack of TSH does not cause goiter.
  • Bradycardia, hypotension, dysrrhythmias, enlarged heart
  • Apathy, slow and slurred speech, lethargy
  • Decreased heat production-sensitivity to cold
  • Decreased nutrient requirements: poor appetite
  • Decreased sweat and sebaceous gland function: dry scaly skin
  • Altered protein, fat and carbohydrate metabolism: weight gain (edema) slow wound healing, decreased blood glucose, hypoalbuminemia
  • Decreased erythropoietin production: anemia
32) B
- Hypothyroidism is due to deficient thyroxine hormone so naturally serum T4 will be below normal.

Thyroxine regulates fat or lipid metabolism. Deficiency in thyroxine will result in slow metabolic activity resulting in slowing of lipid metabolism which increases serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels making the patient at risk for atherosclerosis and cardiac disorders.

Management:

1. Prevention - prevention of iodine deficiency

2. Replacement therapy throughout life
a. Drugs used:
  • Sodium L-thyroxine/levothyroxine (Synthroid, Levoid)
  • Sodium L-triidothyroxine (Cytomel, Trionine)
  • Synthetic combination of T3 and T4 (Euthroid, thyrolar)
  • Natural combination of T3 and T4 extract
b. Major Side Effects:
  • Inadequate treatment - show recurrence/persistence of signs of hypothyroidism
  • Excessive treatment - show signs of hyperthyroidism
  • Too fast increase in drug dose - angina, palpitations, tachycardia
  • Bone loss and decreased bone density
c. During initiation of therapy - patient is seen by physician every 2-4 weeks until condition is stable and then thyroid therapy is monitored annually.

3. Nursing Care:
  • Activity Intolerance - limit activity to patient's tolerance. If patient develops tachycardia or chest pain, stop activity
  • Constipation - increase fiber and fluids
  • Hypothermia - maintain comfortable environmental temperature, use blankets as necessary
  • Use frequent stimulation at dusk and nightfall - use nightlights to prevent confusion
  • maintain safe environment
  • promote positive body image - educate about reversible body changes
4. Surgery - may be performed for large goiters especially if it causes dysphagia, chocking sensation, inspiratory stridor, hoarseness and positive Pemberton's sign (elevation of arms results in dizziness and syncope) caused by pressure on veins that venous return from the head.


33) B
- myxedema is manifested by hypothyroidism. (A, C, and D are manifestations of hyperthyroidism)

34) A
- thyroid crisis /storm/thyroidtoxicosis is the most life-threatening postop complication of thyroid surgery. It is characterized by hyperthermia and tachycardia. Therefore it is necessary to monitor the client's pulse and temperature.

35) B
- hyperthyroidism may cause exopthalmos. To prevent corneal ulceration, artificial tears will be instilled into the eyes as necessary. The client usually develops diarrhea so, high fiber diet is not indicated. The medication should not be taken with antacid. Antacid inhibits absorption of anti thyroid drugs.


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NCLEX Review about Bowel Disorders 6-8

NCLEX Review about Bowel Disorders

Situation: Mr. Greg, a 49 year old CEO is diagnosed as having ulcer disease.

6. Mr. Greg's ulcer perforates into the peritoneal cavity. To relieve the pain caused by perforation, Mr. Greg is most likely to:

a) lie on his left side
b) turn into his stomach
c) rigidly maintain the supine position
d) draw his knees up to his abdomen

7. Mr. Greg is placed on the bland diet and receives medications to decrease gastric acidity. Which medication reduces hydrochloride acid secretion?

a) cimetidine (tagamet)
b) sucralfate (carafets)
c) aluminum hydroxide (amphogel)
d) aspirin

8. Mr. Greg is scheduled for an upper GI series. Which intervention should the nurse perform after procedure?

a) testing stool for occult blood
b) give the patient a laxative
c) assessing for the gag reflex
d) administer double dose of antacids to prevent excessive HCL production




NCLEX REVIEW ABOUT BOWEL DISORDERS:
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

6) D
- Ulcer is the ulceration of the mucosa and underlying structures of the upper gastrointestinal tract caused by conditions in which there is increased acidic gastric secretions or decrease mucus production. Common complication of peptic ulcer are perforation, hemorrhage and obstruction.

Perforation often occurs in duodenal ulcer. When it happens, gastric content is emptied into the peritoneal cavity causing peritonitis (gastric content is acidic, irritates peritoneal cavity and cause inflammation), bacterial septicemia (microorganism from stomach invade peritoneum and gain access to blood) and shock (from bleeding)

When ulcer perforates, the patient experiences sudden severe excruciating and stabbing pain at the epigastrium that spreads to the entire abdomen. The severe abdominal pain caused by perforated ulcer makes the patient assume the fetal position by drawing the knees up in an effort to lessen abdominal muscle tension with the hand clutching the abdomen. The abdominal area becomes tender and rigid.

On examination, the patient will also have a rigid boardlike abdomen with absent bowel sounds. Because after perforation peristalsis diminishes and the patient develops paralytic ileus.

7) A
- Medications for Ulcer

Histamine Receptor Antagonists - Block release of histamine, a hormone which stimulates HCL secretion.
It includes:
  • Cimetidine (tagamet)
  • Ranitidine (zantac) -side effect free
  • Famotidine (pepcid) - given if patient develop adverse reaction with tagamet
  • Nizatidine (axid) - newest and most expensive
Side Effects:
  • diarrhea - instruct to increase fluids and take with meals
  • abdominal cramps
  • confusion, dizziness, weakness - avoid driving
  • antiandrogenic effect in men: gynecomastia, low libido, impotence

Antacids
- neutralizes HCL.
It includes:
  • amphojel, alternaGEL, dialume, alucap
  • aluminum hydroxide is the antacid of choice because:
  • a) it neutralizes hydrochloric acid
  • b) inhibit pepsin activity
  • c) stimulate prostaglandin synthesis
Side Effects:
  • constipating - advise to increase fluids
  • if with sodium may cause edema
  • decreases absorption of phosphate
  • if antacid contains calcium, may cause hypercalcemia

Misoprostol (Cytotec)
- the drug used for cancer prevention and given to patients on long term aspirin medication. Acts like prostaglandin.

Side Effects:
  • crampy abdominal pain
  • diarrhea
  • contraindicated in pregnant women because it causes uterine contraction
Agents that coat the gastric mucosa such as sulcrafate and bismuth compounds form protective barriers to promote ulcer healing.


Antibiotics
- to inhibit H. pylori
  • Bismuth compounds - (Pepto-Bismul) - antibacterial effect
  • amoxicillin or tetracycline
  • metronidazole (flagyl, protostat)
8) B
- Upper GI series, also known as barium swallow, is the x-ray visualization of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, and upper duodenum. It can detect 80% of peptic ulcers and is the first diagnostic procedure employed as it is also less costly and less invasive than gastroscopy.
  • barium swallow - only esophagus is x-rayed
  • low bowel series - only small intestines is x-rayed
The purpose of this test is to:
  • examination of the structure, position, peristalsis and motility of organs
  • detects malposition, tumors, ulceration, inflammation and abnormal anatomy
Preparation:
  • tell patient barium is white and has chalky taste
  • NPO 6 hours
  • allow to swallow barium prepared in milk shake form
  • entire tests is about 45 minutes
  • films are taken at intervals
After Test:
  • give patient laxative to prevent constipation (barium may become hard and difficult to expel)
  • expect the stool to be whitish for the next 48-72 hours because of barium
  • assess the abdomen for distention and constipation because barium is constipating. Absence of bowel sounds on auscultation may result in barium impaction.
  
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    Psychotic Disorder Practice Exam/Test (24-32)





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    Situation: L., a 28 year old woman, has been hospitalized for most of the past 12 years. For the past 2 1/2 years, she has been on a unit for chronically mentally ill patients. Her psychiatric diagnosis is disorganized type schizophrenia. Her behavior is labile, fluctuating from childishness to incoherence to loud yelling to making growling noises to demonstrating slow but appropriate interaction. L., needs assistance with all her activities of daily living (ADLs). In the morning, she remains in her nightgown unless helped to dress

    24. Which behavior is characteristic of a patient with disorganized type of schizophrenia?

    a) extreme social impairment
    b) suspicious delusions
    c) waxy flexibility
    d) appropriate affect

    25. L. continues to be unable to complte her ADLs without staff direction ans assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Dressing and grooming self-care deficit related to inability to function without assistance. An appropriate patient goal is that within 1 month, L. will be able to:

    a) complete ADLs independently
    b) complte ADLs with only verbal encouragement
    c) complete ADLs with assistance in organizing her grooming items and clothing
    d) complete ADLs with complete assistance

    26. L. is seen sitting in the day room looking disheveled. Her slacks are stained and her blouse is incorrectly buttoned so that one side hangs several inches below the other. The nurse can help L. most by:

    a) telling her that her slacks are soiled and her blouse needs to be rebuttoned
    b) taking her to her room, selecting another pair of slacks, and fixing her blouse
    c) reminding her that she should complete her ADLs before going to the dayroom
    d) bringing her to a mirror and helping her identify what needs to be corrected

    Situation: M., a 24 year old college student, is brought to the hospital by her boyfriend with whom she has been living for the past 6 months. He reports that M.'s behavior has become very strange over the past week. She has become more and more withdrawn to the point that yesterday she sat on a chair in her room with her eyes closed, not moving for 6 hours, until he carried her to bed. He says that at first he thought she was just depressed about the recent death of a friend, but now he thinks she's "flipped out." M. is admitted with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia.

    27. During the physical assessment, M.'s arm remains outstretched after her pulse and blood pressure are taken, and the nurse must reposition it for her. The patient is manifesting:

    a) suggestibility
    b) negativity
    c) waxy flexibility
    d) retardation

    28. M. keeps her eyes closed and does not respond to questions from the nurse or the physician. The nurse keep in mind that:

    a) the patient is aware of what is going on around her and could respond if she wanted
    b) the patient may be able to hear what is happening around her even though she does not respond
    c) the patient cannot hear or comprehend what is being said to her
    d) the patient is in a regressed state and should be treated like a frightened child

    29. M. remains in bed with her eyes closed. She continues to be unresponsive and does not eat or drink. The physician orders chlorpromazine (thorazine) 100 mg orally four times a day. Under these circumstances, the nurse should:

    a) withhold the medication until the patient becomes more responsive and eats
    b) administer the appropriate dose of chlorpromazine in a concentrate form
    c) administer the chlorpromazine as needed
    d) request an order for chlorpromazine to be administered intramuscularly

    30. While M. remains is an unresponsive state, the nurse's highest priority is assess the patient's:

    a) fluid intake and output
    b) daily activity level
    c) communication level
    d) response to others

    31. One evening, M. suddenly begins running up and down the hall. She strips off her clothing and strikes out wildly at anyone she passes. This incident of catatonic excitement is considered:

    a) a response to increased activity on the unit
    b) self-limiting episode that will subside as suddenly as it began
    c) an occurrence related to internal not external stimuli
    d) an indication of patient improvement

    32. All of the following interventions would be appropriate for a patient experiencing catatonic excitement except:

    a) clearing the area of other patients
    b) calling for assistance of at least three other staff members
    c) obtaining an order for and preparing an as-needed dose of chlorpromazine
    d) restraining the patient and calling for help




    ANSWERS AND RATIONALE

    24) A
    - Rationale:
    Disorganized type schizophrenia (formerly hebephrenia) is characterized by extreme social impairment, marked inappropriate affect, silliness, grimacing, posturing, and fragmented delusions and hallucinations. A patient with a paranoid disorder typically exhibits suspicious delusions (belefs that evil forces are after him). Waxy flexibility, a condition in which the patient's limbs remain fixed in uncomfortable positions for long periods, is characterized of catatonic schizophrenia.

    25) C
    - Rationale:
    L.'s history of hospitalization and her disorganized personality caused by schizophrenia have affected her ability to care for herself. Interventions should be directed at helping her complete her activities of daily living (ADLs) with the assistance of staff members, who can provide needed structure by helping her select her grooming items and clothing. This goal promotes realistic independence. As L. improves and attains the established goal, new goals can be set that are directed at the patien's completing. ADLs with only verbal encouragement and, ultimately, completing them independently. L.'s condition does not indicate a need for complete assistance, which would only foster dependence.

    26) D
    - Rationale:
    the nurse should help L. to recognize for herself what needs to be corrected. Taking her to a mirror encourages reality testing (determining objective reality) and helps develop self-perception with the nurse's support and guidance. Providing L. with an opportunity to attend to her appearance promotes mastery of ADL skills and is more therapeutic than telling her what is wrong or fixing her clothes for her.

    27) C
    - Rationale
    : Waxy flexibility - an ability to assume and maintain awkward or uncomfortable positions for long periods - is characteristic of catatonic schizophrenia. Patients often remain in these awkward positions until repositioned by someone else. Patients with dependency problems may demonstrate suggestibility, a response pattern in which the patient easily agrees to the ideas and suggestions of others rather than making his own independent judgments. Negativity (resistance, for example, to being moved or being asked to cooperate) and retardation (slowed movement) are also seen in catatonic patients.

    28) B
    - Rationale:
    the nurse should assume that a withdrawn, unresponsive patient may be able to hear what is being said and what is going on around her. She should address the patient by name, tell her what is being done, and orient her to person, place, and time. All staff members should be respectful of the patient's condition and careful when conversing in the patient's presence. The patient's withdrawal is an extreme defense mechanism that is not consciously controlled and therefore is not willful. Consistent and caring interventions can help the patient develop trust and eventually reduce the need for such extreme behavior. Although the patient may experience extreme and fear, treating her like a child is inappropriate and reinforces dependency.

    29) D
    - Rationale:
    because the physician has ordered chlorpromazine (Thorazine) to be administered orally and the patient is not eating or drinking, the nurse should request an order for IM administration instead. Giving oral forms of medication (including tablets and concentrates) while the patient is in this state would be unsafe and would not ensure that the proper dose is being received. After administering the IM dose,the nurse should closely monitor the patient's vital signs; postural hypotension is a possible side effect. The patient requires adequate doses of chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic, to relieve her symptoms; giving this drug on an as-needed basis would not ensure the proper dosage necessary for a therapeutic effect.

    30) A
    - Rationale:
    the nurse should monitor M.'s fluid intake and output closely. The patient's refusal to eat or drink and her limited mobility put her at high risk for severe fluid and electrolyte imbalance, dehydration, inadequate nutrition, constipation, and urine retention. Vital signs and skin assessment can also indicate fluid volume deficit. Assessing the patient's activity level, communication level, and response to others is of secondary importance.

    31) C
    - Rationale:
    Catatonic excitement, which is characterized by extreme purposeless motor activity, agitation, and striking out wildly, appears related to internal rather than external stimuli. It differs from manic excitement, which is escalated by environmental stimuli (and therefore is somewhat more predictable) and can be lessened by a quiet setting. Catatonic excitement is not self-limiting; it may not stop without intervention. A patient experiencing catatonic excitement needs immediate attention to protect herself and others from injury; it does not indicate improvement.

    32) D
    - Rationale:
    a patient experiencing catatonic excitement is extremely agitated and potentially dangerous to herself and others. The nurse should not attempt to restrain the patient without adequate assistance. At least three staff members should approach the patient and have a plan for restraint, if needed. While waiting for staff backup, the area should be cleared of other patients as well as chairs or objects that could be thrown or pose a safety hazard. The nurse should prepare an as-needed injection of chlorpromazine, if ordered, so that the patient ca be medicated once safely restrained.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises I (Anwers 1-10)

    Here are the Questions to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical thinking 1-10 -->

    1) A
    - Rationale:
    in pulmonary edema, the transfusion should be slowed down. For choices 2,3, and 4 the nurse should STOP the blood transfusion

    2) A
    - Rationale:
    focus on feelings and present reality. Hallucinations oftentimes are frightening to the client

    3) D
    - Rationale:
    safety should be given highest priority. A client who experiences postural hypotension is prone to falls

    4) B
    - Rationale: Placing the client in supine position will further cause bleeding and edema in the area. When bleeding occurs in a particular body part, it should be elevated.

    5) D
    - describes choice management:
    Choice A - is functional nursing
    Choice B - is total care nursing
    Choice C - is team nursing

    6) B
    - positive variance indicates favorable outcome.
    Negative variance indicates unfavorable outcome, like development of complications and the patient's hospital stay is prolonged.

    7) B
    - democratic leadership style is participative. Whereas, autocratic leadership is controlling and does not involve members in decision-making; Laissez-faire leadership delegates all responsibilities to members.

    8) A
    - in case of fire, priority actions are as follows:
    R - escue the client
    A- ctivate the fire alarm
    C - onfine the fire
    E- xtinguished the fire

    9) A
    - do not release information about patient's, unless he gives consent. Implement Principle of confidentiality/privacy. This is a patient's right.

    10) B
    - saw palmetto is "herbal catheter", and recommended for BPH. Ginseng is an energy-booster; Echinacea is immune-enhancer; Milk thistle is for liver diseases.


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    NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical Thinking Exercises I (Questions 1-10)

    Here are the Answers to NCLEX Preparation Course - Critical thinking I (1-10) -->

    1. The nurse should slow down the transfusion of packed RBC when she has which of the following assessment findings?

    a) bibasilar rales or crackles
    b) anuria
    c) low back pain
    d) fever and skin rashes

    2. The client experiences tactile hallucinations in delirium tremens (DTs). He states, "there are bugs crawling under my skin." The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:

    a) I know, this is frightening to you. But I don't see any bugs crawling in your skin
    b) this sensation is common among clients who undergo alcohol withdrawal, like you
    c) that sensation is all in your imagination
    d) it is not possible for bugs to crawl under your skin

    3. The nurse had been given four clients. Who among these clients should she give highest priority?

    a) the client with fever
    b) the client with diabetic gangrene
    c) the client with diarrhea
    d) the client who feels dizzy when changing position from supine to standing position

    4. A client has had radical neck dissection, and begins to hemorrhage at the incision site. Which action by the nurse would be contraindicated?

    a) applying manual pressure over the site
    b) placing the client in supine position
    c) monitoring the client's airway
    d) calling the physician immediately

    5. Case management nursing care delivery involves

    a) division of tasks with each nurse assuming responsibility for certain tasks
    b) taking responsibility for all aspects of one or more client's care within the shift
    c) delivery of nursing care by the staff of various educational preparations such as RN, LVN, and CNA
    d) care delivery that coordinates and links health care services to clients and their families from admission through and following discharge

    6. Positive variance occurs in which of the following situations?

    a) the elderly client who was admitted due to acute episode of emphysema developed pneumonia
    b) the 52-year old client who had undergone laparoscopic cholesystectomy was discharged after 24 hours
    c) the client with diabetes mellitus developed lumbosacral decubitus ulcer
    d) the client who had undergone prostatectomy developed thrombophlebitis

    7. The leadership style that is based on the belief that every member should have input into development of goals and problem solving is

    a) autocratic leadership
    b) democratic leadership
    c) laissez-faire leadership
    d) power leadership

    8. A fire was detected in the client's room. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action?

    a) rescue the client
    b) activate the fire alarm
    c) close the door of the room
    d) use the fire extinguisher

    9. A man telephones the nurse's station and asks, "How is Mr. Smith?" who he claims to be his personal friend. Which of these responses by the nurse who answers the phone would be correct?

    a) I can't confirm or deny that he is a patient here
    b) you'll have to call him on the patient's phone
    c) what is your relationship with him?
    d) he is doing well as can be expected

    10. Which of the following herbal medicines is recommended for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

    a) ginseng
    b) saw palmetto
    c) echinacea
    d) milk thistle


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